The Augustinian position (which is what the RCC holds to) on the transmission of orders is rather like electricity, yes. And it was the assertion that, for two technical reasons (related to form and intent), the Anglicans had broken the circuit, (usually said to have happened in 1559) that
Apostolicae Curae stated what it stated.
The issue of a female priest or bishop would invalidate the orders for a couple of reasons. If a valid bishop were to attempt to ordain a female, the sacrament would be invalid, due to invalid matter. Similarly, if a female bishop (to coin a phrase) were to attempt to ordain a priest (male, shall we say) the sacrament would be invalid due to an invalid minister.
If all other factors were valid (matter, form, minister, intent), the candidate for priesthood (say) being gay (but celibate) would not in itself render the ordination invalid. It is not sexual orientation that is a sin, but sexual actions. And any man is capable of sinning is some sense. So, yes, youāre correct.
If the PNCC were to take a walk on the dark side, and start laying hands on hairspray, it says nothing about the validity of their orders to that point. It would mean that henceforth there might be concern over the intent of any PNCC ordination (intent is hard to judge, but it must be at least to
facere quod facit ecclesia). And of course, no female would be validly ordained. The point about the Anglicans orders, as expressed in
Apostolicae Curae, is technical and complicated. My reference to the status of OC orders in my previous post was meant in the same sense as what I just said about the PNCC, hypothetically. That is, it would be a judgment on the orders after that fact.
I generally stay away from discussing hypotheticals with respect to Orthodox and Anglicans (might jump in, though). Itās complicated enough to discuss the actual facts.
GKC
*AFAIK, being in communion with Canterbury would not cause Rome to make a judgment on the validity of OC orders, which would be based on Apostolic succession, form, intent, matter, and minister, in the transmission. Once Utrecht began placing hands on hairspray, matter and intent were gone, and the judgment on the OC Utrecht orders would follow. Some sub-groups of OCs might still be considered to possess valid orders.
GKC*
The way it sounds here is almost like electricity. Better yet- like the older models of string-a-long Christmas lights. If one gets loose either the whole set goes out or every light that comes after it goes out.
Lets take female priests or bishops for example. If validity is like electricity than it would sound like only a male soul could conduct that āelectricityā. In other words any ordinations in a schismatic church can be āvalid but licitā, but if it involves a famale priest it would simply break the chain of validity?
Also I hear the gay clergy issue used in talking validity, yet a gay male is still a male soul even if he wasnāt in a state of grace. There is also no way to prove someone gay unless they publically admit it. Iām sure at some point there could have been actively gay bishops ordaining people in the RC throughout the 200 yr history or bishops not in a state of grace for some other reason we just donāt know. So I donāt see that part of the issue.
Also if the PNCC is rather democratic in nature but is still declared valid since they resisted women priests and broke off with churched who have them. What if one day they did decide to ordain women (hypothetically since theyāre obviously moving more toward orthodoxy). If Rome had the power to declare Anglican orders null and void than if the PNCC ever made a bad decision can their parishoners ever wake up one morning to find theyāre no longer Catholic. Would this mean that all āvalid ordersā churches not under the Pope are still under the Popeās control since he can declare them invalid (and therefore fully Protestant) at the stroke of a pen at any timeā¦?
After Apostolic Curae there were talks of some Russian Orthodox recognizing Anglican orders. I donāt think it ever resulted in any type of communion but what if for example, they did decare Anglicans valid independent of Rome yet Rome recognizes Orthodox orders but not Anglican. As an RC I canāt deny what Rome teaches but just trying be be objective in trying to fugure out how all this works. Iād love to hear both RC and non-RC perspectives on this.