To any Anglican or Episcopal people on this forum, I have questions.
How can the Anglican/Episcopal Church ordain to be a bishop an openly homosexual male?
First of all, the Episcopal Church is the official American province of the Anglican Communion (though we have some dioceses outside the U.S. as well). It is presently one of two provinces (Canada being the other) that have consecrated as bishops persons openly identifying themselves as homosexual and living in what appear to be quasi-marital (and thus presumably sexual) relationships with persons of the same sex. These consecrations have been extremely controversial within the Communion. Our status as a province of the Communion is under question at the moment, even as some of the conservative provinces seem to be breaking with the Archbishop of Canterbury because they think he is too soft on us. At this point the question seems to be whether there will be a two-way or a three-way split in the Communion. Within North America, there are a number of Christian bodies identifying themselves with the Anglican tradition, rejecting the actions of the Episcopal Church and the Anglican Church of Canada (whether the recent ones with regard to homosexuals or the earlier actions of ordaining women and revising our respective Prayer Books) and not presently part of the Communion. Generally those who have split away more recently because of homosexuality wish to be part of the Communion; those who split away earlier over women’s ordination and Prayer Book revision do not, at least not as the Communion is presently constituted.
The important point to note with regard to ordaining homosexuals is that this is a question of moral discipline, and thus implicitly of moral teaching. It is not a question of sacramental validity, as women’s ordination is. There are conservative Catholic theologians (such as Fr. Guy Mansini) who have suggested that homosexuals are incapable of being ordained. I find this line of argument baffling and appalling. It seems to me to surrender the main point at issue between orthodox Christians and liberal “revisionists” with regard to homosexuality: whether homosexuals are in some way ontologically different from heterosexuals. If you grant this point, it seems to me that the liberal arguments would become much more compelling.
Leaving that relatively marginal position aside, the issue then is whether a person living in a sexual (or presumptively sexual) relationship with someone of the same sex is a fit person to be ordained as priest or consecrated as bishop. Traditional Christians (including myself and a number of others who so far remain in the Episcopal Church) believe that these people should not be consecrated on the basis of the following argument:
- Persons living publicly in a manner contrary to Christian teaching should not be consecrated as bishops.
- Sexual relationships other than marriage are contrary to Christian teaching.
- Marriage is by its very nature a relationship between a man and a woman.
Therefore, persons who are living publicly in presumptively sexual relationships with persons of the other sex should not be consecrated as bishops.
However, it should be noted that people guilty of a number of grave sins, sometimes publicly, have often served as bishops in the Church. And people have been known to behave in a way that gave scandal and appeared to be sinful without actually sinning (for instance, one English clergyman considered several times for an episcopal position is living in a same-sex relationship which he insists is celibate). Thus, the issue isn’t as clear-cut as conservatives often make it appear. To go into schism over a lapse in moral discipline would be to fall into the Donatist heresy.
Thus, the simple answer to your first question is that any Christian church
can ordain to the episcopate men living in an openly sinful state. A church would be highly ill-advised to do so, but it’s a question of “should,” not “can.”
The bigger problem, of course, is that these recent actions reflect a rejection of traditional Christian sexual morality, and a larger pattern of indifference or even hostility to traditional Christian teaching where that teaching conflicts with modern Western secular mores. Of course, the real reason to question Anglicanism has to do with the sixteenth and not the 21st century, but that’s going way beyond what you asked. . . .