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GKC
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I think so, but itâs not something I would have advanced. It is a major part of Saepius Officio.GKC - I seem to recall reading - from you maybe? - that if we accept the argument re the lack of form in Anglican ordination rites, we would have to admit the same problem in Catholic rites? Do you know what I am talking about? Could you tell me?![]()
The difference would be in the origins of rites, both of which possess the same âdefectâ in that they fail to mention the sacrificial role of the orders (there is a slightly different point with respect to the rite for consecration to the episcopacy). In one case, there exist historical rites which the RCC holds as validly conveying valid orders (other points being valid) which possess the âdefectâ but that could not logically be assumed to have failed to mention that, due to a specific intent to change what the sacerdotal orders convey. On the other hand, there is the Edwardine Ordinal, which was constructed at a specific historical point, in a particular doctrinal atmosphere, by particular individuals (Cranmer, for example), with the intent (not using that word in a sacramental sense, since it is not a sacramental intention) to remove that concept from the office. That it was constructed, IOW, to do something other than what the Church historically had done, in ordaining a priest. The assumption then,stated in Apostolicae Curae, is that in later using this form, so constructed, the consecrators of ++Parker (not by this logic, necessarily the ordinand) manifested invalid sacramental intent. That is, all things being the same otherwise, had Parker been consecrated using the then current Pontificale Romanum, there would have been nothing to indicate the invalid interior sacramental intent that use of the Ordinal was assumed to manifest. The point is arguable, and it is well argued, to the contrary, in Hughesâ STEWARDS OF THE LORD chaps 3-10, in technical detail I would not assume to expound upon. The book is essential reading in this matter (to coin a phrase).
None the less, it manifestly is the teaching of the RCC that Anglican orders are null and void, and that, in fact, means, at a bare minimum, that for the RCC, Anglican orders are null and void. As, to the RCC, Orthodox orders are valid and illicit.
GKC