Anglican Orders

[MarcusAndreas]

How was it that the validity of the orders were lost? I have heard it was because of sacramental doctrine that was false to the point of rendering the sacrament invalid?

 

[GKC]

How was it that the validity of the orders were lost? I have heard it was because of sacramental doctrine that was false to the point of rendering the sacrament invalid?

According to the logic in Apostolicae Curae which is related to a long and complicated bit of history, from around 1891 to 1896), The Church of England lost apostolic succession, through an intertwined relationship, of invalid form (in the rite for ordination and consecration in the Edwardine Ordinal) and a supposed defect in sacramental intention (slightly more complicated point, but usually taken as the intention of the consecrators of Archbishop Parker, in 1559). With the lose of apostolic succession, there was no ability to confect any sacrament for which valid orders was required.

As you might expect, Anglicans have a different view of the matter (and the form and the intent).

GKC

 

[Aelred_Minor]

There is another active thread asking essentially the same question, and with the same response from GKC, to which I’ve posted an answer. In fact, at first I thought this was that same thread and my post somehow didn’t go up or was removed for some reason! Here’s a link to the other thread.

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=576307

 

[GKC]

There is another active thread asking essentially the same question, and with the same response from GKC, to which I’ve posted an answer. In fact, at first I thought this was that same thread and my post somehow didn’t go up or was removed for some reason! Here’s a link to the other thread.

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=576307

GKC is everywhere. If Apostolicae Curae is mentioned, more or less.

GKC