Anglicans/ Episcopalians: Do you know where i can trace the apostolic line?

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But what about groups like the Polish National Church? Don’t they have valid orders? Wouldn’t they have the same issues with intent? Even if the form is identical.
Yes, the Polish Nationals have valid orders.

No, they don’t have the same issues with intent because the PNCs have never denied the priesthood. That’s what caused the Anglican community to loose Apostolic Succession: the fact that the “office” which they passed-on was not the priesthood at all. They did not believe in the priesthood, and certainly did not believe in passing-on that which they denied even existed. The PNCs have never had this problem.
 
That’s even more confusing. The Priesthood as it now stands didn’t exist when apostolic succession was first being passed down, but was a later evolution as Christianity grew. What’s the issue?

Is it because they took the Lutheran view of a priesthood of all men? Even so they maintained the formal post.
 
But what about groups like the Polish National Church? Don’t they have valid orders? Wouldn’t they have the same issues with intent? Even if the form is identical.
No.

The form, with respect to the co-consecration of PNCC (or Old Catholic) bishops, consecrating Anglican bishops, is the 1662 form of the Edwardine Ordinal, which does not possess the supposed defect. The issue of intent (as I said, it’s not clear; the best RC comment and study on the subject, Clark’s ANGLICAN ORDERS AND DEFECT OF INTENTION lists 7 possible meanings of “intent” before settling on that of the consecrators of ++Parker) is unclear, as to its application to the PNCC( or the Old Catholics of Utrecht doing the same thing, beginning with the OCs, back in 1932). It might be noted that in 1932, the OC Bishop of Haarlem, who co-consecrated with the Archbishop of Canterbury on that first occasion, spoke and wrote fully and explicitly of his intent to convey the full Catholic powers of the Episcopacy, in his sacramental actions, No doubt as to his sacramental intent., But the issue remains undefined. Rome has never commented officially on the effect of the “Dutch Touch” or Polish Pat", to infuse valid/illict episcopal lines into Anglicanism. Logically, it would seem to do so. But no word has come. Apostolicae Curae is the final word. Which, in its own words, it was intended to be.

GKC
 
Yes, the Polish Nationals have valid orders.

No, they don’t have the same issues with intent because the PNCs have never denied the priesthood. That’s what caused the Anglican community to loose Apostolic Succession: the fact that the “office” which they passed-on was not the priesthood at all. They did not believe in the priesthood, and certainly did not believe in passing-on that which they denied even existed. The PNCs have never had this problem.
That is the defective form that the Bull alleges. But, since the same defect exists in a number of Rites which the RCC considers as conveying valid orders, the issue also must consider intent. As I said, the intent is unclear in Apostolicae Curae, but the best conclusion is that it referred to the consecrators of ++Parker.

Your conclusion is the appropriate one for a RC to affirm, to be sure.

GKC
 
That’s even more confusing. The Priesthood as it now stands didn’t exist when apostolic succession was first being passed down, but was a later evolution as Christianity grew. What’s the issue?

Is it because they took the Lutheran view of a priesthood of all men? Even so they maintained the formal post.
It alleged that the defect of form related to the omission, as it was seen, of the statement in the ordination rite of the power of the priesthood to offer sacrifice, and, in that of the bishops, a failure to refer to the episcopacy as the highest form of the priesthood. The assertion, particularly with respect to the form for a priest, was that this indicated that the sacrificing priesthood was not what was being intended or conveyed.

GKC
 
The supposed “defects” of wording regarding the episcopacy in the Edwardine ordinal, if memory serves, were the same essential “defects” of earlier Catholic ordinals. I think it was in the Anglican rebuttal to Apostolicae Curae called Saepius Officio where Temple and Maclagan used the logic that if past Catholic ordinals that were worded essentially the same as the Edwardine, or at least didn’t express the explicit verbage that Apostolicae Curae claimed was necessary, then Catholic ordinations would’ve also been “null and void” centuries before the Anglican because the Anglican was very similar in what it said and didn’t say centuries before, right?

Cardinal Basil Hume, a Roman Catholic cardinal, said that the Dutch Touch and Polish Patting put Apostolicae Curae into some doubt.

Most Catholics in CAF aren’t aware of the PNCC and Utrecht interactions with the Anglican church so they only go off of A.C. by Leo XIII. GKC maintains that a Catholic should go off of A.C. as de fide and ignore historical developments to be a good Catholic. I disagree. I think a good Catholic can look at A.C. for what it was worth at the time but in light of historical developments maintain a private view that they’re probably valid but illicit.

The key is “illicit.” The Old Catholic churches, Episcopal Church, and many Anglican churches like the CofE and many ACNA churches have allowed great sin to penetrate their bodies, namely the disgusting heresy of “ordaining” women. It would be more productive for a Catholic to criticize the “illicit” futility of having apostolic succession if one isn’t in communion with the Church, thus allowing all sorts of sin and rot to penetrate the walls of the new church bodies. I think it’s a better road of criticism to go down to say “you guys may have apostolic succession but it’s not all one needs to make a Church. Your sinful heterodox women’s ordination and the rampant sympathy for homosexual marriage, abortion, divorce/remarriage and other sins has penetrated most quarters (not all) of Anglicanism, the Old Catholics, etc.” That’s a better argument than the invalidity route when arguing against Anglicanism I’d say. But that’s just moi.:cool:
 
Yes there has. See if this link helps at all. It only covers The Episcopal Church, but it’s a start. And don’t let any negativity in this thread get ya down. 🙂

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Succession_of_Bishops_of_the_Episcopal_Church_in_the_United_States
That’s not the one I had in mind, but it’s useful.

However, if the CoE lost Apostolic succession, around 1559, as Apostolicae Cuare suggests, then the succession could not have been passed to +Seabury, by the Non-Jurors, in 1784.

GKC
 
To the OP I’d say, why Episcopal? Gay “marriage” sympathies, women’s “ordination” heresy, a lack of coherence, mass support for abortion “rights,” a twisted vision of who God is and how necessary He really is to find salvation, law suits against fellow Anglican brothers and sisters in Christ, it’s just a toxic, caustic ecclesiastical group that I wouldn’t join on a dare. For goodness sakes, look into ACNA anglican churches, LCMS Lutherans, etc. if you don’t want to go the Catholic route, Orthodoxy, etc. TEC? No way.:eek:
 
The key is “illicit.” The Old Catholic churches, Episcopal Church, and many Anglican churches like the CofE and many ACNA churches have allowed great sin to penetrate their bodies, namely the disgusting heresy of “ordaining” women. It would be more productive for a Catholic to criticize the “illicit” futility of having apostolic succession if one isn’t in communion with the Church, thus allowing all sorts of sin and rot to penetrate the walls of the new church bodies. I think it’s a better road of criticism to go down to say “you guys may have apostolic succession but it’s not all one needs to make a Church. Your sinful heterodox women’s ordination and the rampant sympathy for homosexual marriage, abortion, divorce/remarriage and other sins has penetrated most quarters (not all) of Anglicanism, the Old Catholics, etc.” That’s a better argument than the invalidity route when arguing against Anglicanism I’d say. But that’s just moi.:cool:
I have to agree, when I left the Anglican Church the ordination of women and blessing of homosexual relationships(I don’t think they’d yet performed a marriage) played a part. A.C. did not. It just isn’t an argument that works unless you already accept the voice of Rome, and if you already accept Rome, why would one be in the Anglican Church?
 
Recall that each time I mention the Bull, I connect the defect of form with the defect of intention. While there are 3-4 Rites which Rome sees as conveying valid orders, which share the “defect” (no mention of the sacrificing priesthood), the Bull makes a subtle connection with intent, and the two factors have to be taken together. The intent (as Clark says, of ++Parker’s consecrators), is revealed in the fact that they used that particular form, which was constructed by the particular people who wrote it, at that particular time, and specifically constructed to eliminate any mention of the sacrificing pristhood. By choosing to use such a form rather than to use the Pontificale Romanum, the consecrators of Parker showed their intent not to ordain a sacrificing priesthood.

Valid intent is not hard to achieve. The minimum required is facere quod facit ecclesia, to do what the Church does. This is not a high standard, and is why an atheist is able to validly baptize, without believing. If the Pontificale had been used, there would have been no method for Rome to determine what the consecrators’ intent was. But the use of that particular Ordinal form, constructed purposefully as it was (as Rome saw it) amounted to a method of determining that there was a contrary intent, a positive intent not to do what the Church does. The use of the Ordinal was judged a determinatio ex adiunctus, a means of determining intent indirectly, by examining context.

GKC
The supposed “defects” of wording regarding the episcopacy in the Edwardine ordinal, if memory serves, were the same essential “defects” of earlier Catholic ordinals. I think it was in the Anglican rebuttal to Apostolicae Curae called Saepius Officio where Temple and Maclagan used the logic that if past Catholic ordinals that were worded essentially the same as the Edwardine, or at least didn’t express the explicit verbage that Apostolicae Curae claimed was necessary, then Catholic ordinations would’ve also been “null and void” centuries before the Anglican because the Anglican was very similar in what it said and didn’t say centuries before, right?

Cardinal Basil Hume, a Roman Catholic cardinal, said that the Dutch Touch and Polish Patting put Apostolicae Curae into some doubt.

Most Catholics in CAF aren’t aware of the PNCC and Utrecht interactions with the Anglican church so they only go off of A.C. by Leo XIII. GKC maintains that a Catholic should go off of A.C. as de fide and ignore historical developments to be a good Catholic. I disagree. I think a good Catholic can look at A.C. for what it was worth at the time but in light of historical developments maintain a private view that they’re probably valid but illicit.

The key is “illicit.” The Old Catholic churches, Episcopal Church, and many Anglican churches like the CofE and many ACNA churches have allowed great sin to penetrate their bodies, namely the disgusting heresy of “ordaining” women. It would be more productive for a Catholic to criticize the “illicit” futility of having apostolic succession if one isn’t in communion with the Church, thus allowing all sorts of sin and rot to penetrate the walls of the new church bodies. I think it’s a better road of criticism to go down to say “you guys may have apostolic succession but it’s not all one needs to make a Church. Your sinful heterodox women’s ordination and the rampant sympathy for homosexual marriage, abortion, divorce/remarriage and other sins has penetrated most quarters (not all) of Anglicanism, the Old Catholics, etc.” That’s a better argument than the invalidity route when arguing against Anglicanism I’d say. But that’s just moi.:cool:
 
I have to agree, when I left the Anglican Church the ordination of women and blessing of homosexual relationships(I don’t think they’d yet performed a marriage) played a part. A.C. did not. It just isn’t an argument that works unless you already accept the voice of Rome, and if you already accept Rome, why would one be in the Anglican Church?
I agree. Doesn’t stop me from studying the subject, though.

GKC
 
The supposed “defects” of wording regarding the episcopacy in the Edwardine ordinal, if memory serves, were the same essential “defects” of earlier Catholic ordinals. I think it was in the Anglican rebuttal to Apostolicae Curae called Saepius Officio where Temple and Maclagan used the logic that if past Catholic ordinals that were worded essentially the same as the Edwardine, or at least didn’t express the explicit verbage that Apostolicae Curae claimed was necessary, then Catholic ordinations would’ve also been “null and void” centuries before the Anglican because the Anglican was very similar in what it said and didn’t say centuries before, right?

Cardinal Basil Hume, a Roman Catholic cardinal, said that the Dutch Touch and Polish Patting put Apostolicae Curae into some doubt.

Most Catholics in CAF aren’t aware of the PNCC and Utrecht interactions with the Anglican church so they only go off of A.C. by Leo XIII. GKC maintains that a Catholic should go off of A.C. as de fide and ignore historical developments to be a good Catholic. I disagree. I think a good Catholic can look at A.C. for what it was worth at the time but in light of historical developments maintain a private view that they’re probably valid but illicit.

The key is “illicit.” The Old Catholic churches, Episcopal Church, and many Anglican churches like the CofE and many ACNA churches have allowed great sin to penetrate their bodies, namely the disgusting heresy of “ordaining” women. It would be more productive for a Catholic to criticize the “illicit” futility of having apostolic succession if one isn’t in communion with the Church, thus allowing all sorts of sin and rot to penetrate the walls of the new church bodies. I think it’s a better road of criticism to go down to say “you guys may have apostolic succession but it’s not all one needs to make a Church. Your sinful heterodox women’s ordination and the rampant sympathy for homosexual marriage, abortion, divorce/remarriage and other sins has penetrated most quarters (not all) of Anglicanism, the Old Catholics, etc.” That’s a better argument than the invalidity route when arguing against Anglicanism I’d say. But that’s just moi.:cool:
When it comes to the orders that you are questioning here I have always been told the ruling from the Vatican is “valid but irregular” rather than “illicit.”

I think another part of this equation that is not being taken into consideration is one like mine where I had a validly consecrated Roman Catholic bishop as one of my consecrators. Many conservative Anglicans to tend to find sympathetic Roman Catholic bishops to aid us.
 
When it comes to the orders that you are questioning here I have always been told the ruling from the Vatican is “valid but irregular” rather than “illicit.”

I think another part of this equation that is not being taken into consideration is one like mine where I had a validly consecrated Roman Catholic bishop as one of my consecrators. Many conservative Anglicans to tend to find sympathetic Roman Catholic bishops to aid us.
I am not aware of this, as documented. Can you be specific? What RC bishops, aiding which Anglicans, when? Laying on of hands?

Ott uses the term of liceity, when referring to orders passed by validly ordained, but schismatic, heretical, etc, bishops.

GKC
 
I have to agree, when I left the Anglican Church the ordination of women and blessing of homosexual relationships(I don’t think they’d yet performed a marriage) played a part. A.C. did not. It just isn’t an argument that works unless you already accept the voice of Rome, and if you already accept Rome, why would one be in the Anglican Church?
And, BTW, Nine_Two,

I just noticed that I answered one of your questions about the PNCC and intent, with a nifty and accurate answer to another point you hadn’t asked (it was late, and the site was hanging up on me). The PNCC are in a different boat, according to RCC doctrine, because they did not change the form, hence there is no reason to suspect the intent. Hence they validly can convey valid but illicit orders.

GKC
 
When it comes to the orders that you are questioning here I have always been told the ruling from the Vatican is “valid but irregular” rather than “illicit.”

I think another part of this equation that is not being taken into consideration is one like mine where I had a validly consecrated Roman Catholic bishop as one of my consecrators. Many conservative Anglicans to tend to find sympathetic Roman Catholic bishops to aid us.
Yes, but did the Catholic Bishop have the intent of consecrating a Catholic Bishop? I have seen this mentioned previously - do you contend that having the Catholic Bishop lay hands on you during your consecration somehow gave you “dual orders” in the Anglican and Catholic Churches?
 
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