R
rayne89
Guest
If when two people marry they have every intention of remaining faithful but after the marriage one commits adultary does that mean the marriage can be annulled?
- Status
F
Fox
Guest
Yes it does. This is one of the grounds for annulement.
R
rayne89
Guest
I thought annulment meant there was never a valid marriage. If the couple enters the marriage committed to be faithful and the one falls how could that mean the marriage was never valid if the adultary took place after they entered a valid marriage covenant?
P
Pro-Life_Teen
Guest
Only if they had adultary in mind before they were married. Annuments say that a marriage was never there. Not that there was one and now it’s gone.
You can seperate, or divorce if you’re being abused or want to get away. But you will always be married, 'till death do you part. You may not remarry, or date.
If your spouse thought about abusing you, cheating, etc before you were married, then perhaps there was no marriage to begin with.
^ This can be annuled.
You can seperate, or divorce if you’re being abused or want to get away. But you will always be married, 'till death do you part. You may not remarry, or date.
If your spouse thought about abusing you, cheating, etc before you were married, then perhaps there was no marriage to begin with.
^ This can be annuled.
P
puzzleannie
Guest
no, it is not grounds for annulment. a decree of nullity (there is no such thing as an annulment to be precise) is issued only after an investigation reveals that the conditions necessary for a valid marriage were not present at the time the marriage was contracted, it does not deal with circumstances that arise after the wedding. While those circumstances may be evidence of conditions that made one or both partners incapable or unwilling to enter into a valid marriage, they do not constitute “grounds”. for any questions on annulment you must contact your pastor and be referred to the marriage tribunal of your diocese, each case is unique.
M
mosher
Guest
Fox is incorrect. For a decree of nullity to be issued no sacrament had to occure in the first place. This would require some impedement in the matter, form, minister and/or intention at the ceremony itself. Post fact things that happen do not effect the validity of the sacrament.
R
rayne89
Guest
OK another question. What if before the marriage takes place one of the two stipulates “If you are unfaithful to me during our marriage I will no longer keep my vows to you.” Would that marriage then not be a valid sacramental marriage?
F
Fox
Guest
I have known people to get an annulment for adultery.
M
mosher
Guest
Yes there would at least be grounds for annulment because it is inducing the following a vow of marriage through coersion which limits a persons freedom.
M
mosher
Guest
In the case adultery would be the action cited for grounds but te decree of nullity would be given because something was awry with the matter, form, minister and/or intention as cited above.
J
Joe_Kelley
Guest
A Decree of Nullity is issued only if conditions at the time of the marriage rendered it invalid; not for subsequent actions. However, subsequent actions can be used as evidence of conditions existing at the time of marriage.
In one case I am familiar with one party engaged in adultery from the start of the marriage - on the honeymoon. This was accepted as evidence that the party had no intent of being faithful at the time of the marriage, and the marriage was declared invalid.
In one case I am familiar with one party engaged in adultery from the start of the marriage - on the honeymoon. This was accepted as evidence that the party had no intent of being faithful at the time of the marriage, and the marriage was declared invalid.
- Status