Annulment Reforms

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Yet this entire concept is foreign to Eastern Catholic (of course Orthodox) theology.

It’s an example of something that exists in the Code which contradicts the Eastern Church’s theology.

It’s a strange situation in the law.

If a couple cannot be married by a priest, they can “validly” marry in front of witnesses alone, but until the priest acts as the minister by blessing the marriage, the marriage is a sort of “valid but incomplete” (to coin a phrase). It’s odd.
It demonstrates that the Church has the power to determine the canonical form, both normal and exceptional, and that the traditions do not survive universal jurisdiction (when it comes to the good of the faithful).

We also have the incomplete Christian initiation until all three sacraments of baptism, chrismation, and communion have occurred. Also multiple qualities exist for marriage such as in a valid but unconsummated sacramental marriage – there the union is still dissolvable.
 
Yet this entire concept is foreign to Eastern Catholic (of course Orthodox) theology.

It’s an example of something that exists in the Code which contradicts the Eastern Church’s theology.

It’s a strange situation in the law.

If a couple cannot be married by a priest, they can “validly” marry in front of witnesses alone, but until the priest acts as the minister by blessing the marriage, the marriage is a sort of “valid but incomplete” (to coin a phrase). It’s odd.
A valid but never consummated marriage can be dissolved. I wonder if such a provision could apply to a valid Eastern marriage that never obtained the priestly blessing.
 
A valid but never consummated marriage can be dissolved. I wonder if such a provision could apply to a valid Eastern marriage that never obtained the priestly blessing.
CCEO (Eastern canon law)
Canon 862
A non-consummated marriage can be dissolved by the Roman Pontiff for a just cause, with both parties making the request or only one making the request and the other opposed.
 
Even an non-Catholic priest may be give the blessing sometimes, yet it is still valid without the blessing:

CCEO 832
2. In either case, if another priest, even a non-Catholic one, is able to be present, inasmuch as it is possible he is to be called so that he can bless the marriage, without
prejudice for the validity of a marriage in the presence only of the witnesses.
FrDavid96;13320264:
Yet this entire concept is foreign to Eastern Catholic (of course Orthodox) theology.

It’s an example of something that exists in the Code which contradicts the Eastern Church’s theology.

It’s a strange situation in the law.

If a couple cannot be married by a priest, they can “validly” marry in front of witnesses alone, but until the priest acts as the minister by blessing the marriage, the marriage is a sort of “valid but incomplete” (to coin a phrase). It’s odd.
I don’t understand why Can. 832 §2 exists. It seems like
Canon 832
§1. If one cannot have present or have access to a priest who is competent according to the norm of law without grave inconvenience, those intending to celebrate a true marriage can validly and licitly celebrate it before witnesses alone:
§ 3. If a marriage was celebrated in the presence only of witnesses, the spouses shall not neglect to receive the blessing of the marriage from a priest as soon as possible.
would make sense, without any more of what is presently included in that Canon 832.
I haven’t seen the new CCEO canons.
 
I don’t understand why Can. 832 §2 exists. It seems like

would make sense, without any more of what is presently included in that Canon 832.
I haven’t seen the new CCEO canons.
The new code replaces TITLE 26 Certain Special Procedures - the causes for the declaration of nullity of marriage (CCEO can. 1357 to 1377). This is a different section of code than that on the blessing of marriage.

The natural right to marry takes precedence to canon law. Also, the matrimonial contract cannot be separated from the sacrament between two baptized.

For the blessing, Canons 828, 829, 831, and 834 will help to understand, that priest may mean Eastern non-Catholic:Canon 828
§ 1. Only those marriages are valid which are celebrated with a sacred rite, in the presence of the local hierarch, local pastor, or a priest who has been given the faculty of blessing the marriage by either of them, and at least two witnesses, according, however to the prescriptions of the following canons, with due regard for the exceptions mentioned in cann. 832 and 834, 2.

§ 2. That rite which is considered a sacred rite is the intervention a priest assisting and blessing

Canon 829
§ 1. From the day of taking canonical possession of office and as long as they legitimately hold office, everywhere within the boundaries of their territory, local hierarchs and pastors validly bless the marriage of parties whether they are subjects or non-subjects, provided that at least one of the parties is enrolled in his Church sui iuris.

§ 2. The hierarch and the personal pastor, by virtue of their office, only validly bless marriages within the boundaries of their jurisdiction when at least one of the parties is a subject.

§ 3. By the law itself, the patriarch is endowed with the faculty to personally bless marriages anywhere in the world, as long as at least one of the parties is enrolled in the Church over which he presides, observing the other requirements of law.
Can. 831

§ 2 of the Code of Canons of the Eastern Churches specifies that the Marriage must be celebrated in the presence of the parish priest of the groom, unless the particular law determines otherwise or unless excused by a just cause.
Canon 834

§ 1. The form for the celebration of marriage prescribed by law is to be observed if at least one of the parties celebrating the marriage was baptized in the Catholic Church or was received into it.

§ 2. If, however, a Catholic party enrolled in some Eastern Church celebrates a marriage with one who belongs to an Eastern non-Catholic Church, the form for the celebration of marriage prescribed by law is to be observed only for liceity; for validity, however, the blessing of a priest is required, while observing the other requirements of law.
 
I don’t understand why Can. 832 §2 exists. It seems like

would make sense, without any more of what is presently included in that Canon 832.
I haven’t seen the new CCEO canons.
§2 exists to allow for even a non-Catholic priest to minister to the marriage because it’s better to have a non-Catholic priest as minister than to make the couple wait unduly long until a Catholic one can be found.

Added:

Not just a non-Catholic one, but §2 refers to any priest who would otherwise not be “competent according to the norm of law.” So that would mean a priest who has no jurisdiction in that place (such as a visiting priest) or even a Catholic one who is suspended. There are all kinds of possible scenarios for why there might be “a priest” but that priest is not specifically competent according to the law. It’s not limited to non-Catholics.
 
The Eastern Orthodox and the Catholic have differences in the sacrament of matrimony and the number of allowable valid marriages. In both “ecclesial context is constitutive of the Christian sacrament of marriage.” The Church can determine the valid form of celebration of matrimony. Note also that there are differences between the Assyrian Church of the East, the Oriental Orthodox, and the Eastern Orthodox with regards to marriage. For example, Armenian Orthodox do allow marriage of an Armenian Orthodox with non-Armenian Orthodox without conversion, however the Eastern Orthodox are more restrictive. Also, the Assyrian Church of the East does not consider matrimony to be a sacrament.
The Assyrian Church of the East, would then appear to be in heresy? Legal prohibitions or sanctions is one thing, but denying that Christ raised matrimony to a sacrament, especially considering the role marriage plays in salvation (Ephesians 5:31-32) is quite another.

There are several problems with the text you’re quoting; although I find most of it reasonable. Indeed, both East and West agree that marriage is regulated by law, and that church involvement constitutes a building block of a sacrament. But, the way that paragraph is written, it makes the Latin position that the couple marries each other even less likely to be honored in practice; for if they married each other, the church wedding would never be necessary. In fact, the USCCB quote sort of makes the Latin rite marriage look as if it were Eastern rite, including a blessing.
All of the Catholic Church sui iuris share in the same sacraments. There has been change in the Orthodox sacrament over time since the early Church, due to the imposition of the eastern Emperor’s laws over the Church.
But, you don’t mean to imply the particular Eastern blessing which “makes” the couple to be joined by Christ, Jesus, was “invented” laster in history do you ?! “Sui iuris” means they have the right of self rule, or law. Changes in discipline are quite different from apostolic Traditions.

Jesus did say, what “God (persona Christi?)” has joined, let no man separate. That’s indication right there in scripture that at very least a priestly element; someone who is mediator between God and Man, must join the mere mortals in marriage.

If there are differing marriage traditions traceable back to different Apostles, I can’t possibly imagine that law, even from a pope, if not made as an ex-cathedra statement; could over rule them. Ordinary infallibility can not be over-ruled by mere law, and if one should argue that there is no infallibility because the individual marriage rites conflict – then there is an issue that not even the pope is infallible, let alone a committee, unless he decrees ex-cathedra. Any power delegated to a committee would be less powerful than that of the pope… so I think the laws being cited could in fact be easily misinterpreting Jesus’ intentions and overstepping the power they actually have.

Do you have links or sources which explain exactly what changes the Eastern Emperor instituted?
The Eastern Orthodox do consider impediments, which when they exist, may declare that the matrimonial union does not exist. This is similar to the Catholic. In both traditions a valid canonical form exists.
They should. That’s the purpose of law. To tell what needs to be done to be in God’s grace, although the law does not grant the power to do those things or else salvation would have come by the law of Moses a long time before canon law came along…
USCCB has this to say:
As older presentations of sacramental theology indicate, Orthodox theologians often have insisted that the priest is the proper “minister of the Sacrament”, whereas Roman Catholic theologians more often have spoken of the couple as “ministering the sacrament to each other”.
:o And older usually means being more likely to be a Tradition and not merely a tradition.
We do not wish to underestimate the seriousness of these differences in practice and theological explanation. We consider their further study to be desirable.
:amen:
At the same time, we wish to emphasize our fundamental agreement. Both our churches have always agreed that ecclesial context is constitutive of the Christian sacrament of marriage.
I think the red part that you have highlighted is the part I am fundamentally in agreement with.

There is an issue of the Latin rite sort of saying nearly contradictory things that were extremely confusing to me in my engagement period, and which are now part of the reason I have to go through an annulment process. Perhaps, I will unpack some of them depending on how the original OP gets answered or not answered.

I think a sign of the times we live in is that my own civil divorce attorney advised me that I could always convert to the Eastern rites as they generally do not recognize a marriage without a specific blessing. eg: I would likely be able to remarry as an Orthodox… 😃 So, I see a very serious reason that the Latin Church would desire place laws upon the eastern Church to stem the loss of the faithful by trying to make such remarriage at least appear to be invalid/illegal… even if they do contradict Eastern theology.
 
Those are excellent comments but I want answer those questions you posed if I can.
  1. The Assyrian Church of the East, would then appear to be in heresy?
From the Catholic perspective, invincible ignorance would make then not culpable for heresy.
  1. … if they married each other, the church wedding would never be necessary. In fact, the USCCB quote sort of makes the Latin rite marriage look as if it were Eastern rite, including a blessing.
That same statement from USCCB contains is explicit that it is only exceptional marriage situation where there is not a clergy witness. The main difference being in the sacramental discipline of the eastern Church preserves the Catholic priests blessing (but is it not required for validity in the exceptional situations).“The Catholic Church accepts as sacramental those marriages of Christians baptized in the name of the Holy Trinity which are witnessed by a Catholic bishop or priest (or, in more recent discipline, a deacon), but it also envisages some exceptional situations in which, whether by law or by dispensation, Catholics may enter into a sacramental marriage in the absence of a bishop, priest or deacon.”
3. But, you don’t mean to imply the particular Eastern blessing which “makes” the couple to be joined by Christ, Jesus, was “invented” laster in history do you ?!
and
4. Do you have links or sources which explain exactly what changes the Eastern Emperor instituted?

There is a betrothal and crowning. The betrothal is the marriage contract, not the crowning. See John Meyendorf:From the sixth to the ninth centuries, imperial state legislation tended to
grant the Church an ever increasing control over marriages (see, for example,
novella 64 of Justinian), but it never made “crowning” a legal obligation. The
decisive step in this direction was taken at the beginning of the tenth century,
and this measure coincided with the appearance of a rite of crowning separate
from the Eucharist. What provided this change which modified fundamentally, if
not the meaning of marriage, at least its understanding by the vast majority
of faithful? The answer can easily be found in the imperial decree which
enforced the change. In his novella 89 (novella: “new law”) the Byzantine
Emperor Leo VI (d. 912) first expresses regrets that in previous imperial
legislation the two legal acts of adoption of a child and of marriage were
considered as purely civil formalities. He then declares that both of these
acts – as long as they involve free citizens, and not slaves *- will henceforth be
sanctioned by a Church ceremony. A marriage not blessed by the Church “will not
be considered as marriage,” but as an illegitimate concubinage.’ (1)



So the betrothal service is the marriage contract as the Church understands it.
It involves not only the bridal pair, but God Himself. This is the reason why
canon 98 of the Sixth Ecumenical Council stipulates: He who brings to the
intercourse of marriage a woman who is betrothed to another man, who is still
alive, is to lie under the charge of adultery.

Thus a betrothal, solemnly celebrated in Church, is more than a simple
“engagement.” It represents the real bond of marriage, lacking only the ultimate
sacramental fulfilment. This is certainly why it is generally celebrated just
before the crowning service itself. (2)

(1) John Meyendorf, Marriage, an Orthodox Perspective, SVS Press, New York, 1975. pp. 25-26
(2) ibid. p. 33
5. And older usually means being more likely to be a Tradition and not merely a tradition.

That seems to be true. But then with marriage, much development happened both east and west.
 
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