The Catholic Church teaches against divorce
Well… it’s not that the
Catholic Church teaches against divorce… it’s that Jesus does! The Catholic Church just follows Jesus’ teachings!
In other words you can’t divorce and remarry but we can just say your marriage was never legitimate and now you are free to marry. Do I have this idea correct?
I would say that you’re stretching it a bit too far. Let’s look at what’s really going on:
In Genesis, we see that God’s original plan about marriage is that it’s indissoluble (after all, in Gen 3, when we see that husband and wife “become one body”, that’s the height of an indissoluble bond!). But, in the Mosaic law, we see that a husband can give his wife a “bill of divorce”. Jewish rabbinic tradition was divided on this issue: does it mean that there has to be something immoral going on, or just that the husband is unhappy?
This is exactly the question that’s posed to Jesus. His answer? The concessions in the Mosaic law that allow for divorce were only there because of the hardness of peoples’ hearts – God’s original plan did not allow for divorce. At Cana, Jesus demonstrates his support for marriage – as Catholics, we say that He raised marriage from a natural union to a sacrament.
So, we see that marriage is a sacrament, and marriage is indissoluble. But, are there no exceptions to this assertion? No… Jesus mentions a particular exception:
porneia. But, what does that mean? Non-Catholic Christian traditions assert that this means ‘adultery’; therefore, they allow divorce unconditionally for that reason. Looking at Jewish traditions, it’s possible that it might mean adultery, but also, it might mean ‘illegal marriage’ (i.e., consanguinity) or sexual immorality. The practical upshot is that sacramental marriage is indissoluble; but, in certain cases, divorce is possible – that implies that, if sacramental marriage is indissoluble, then dissolubility can only occur in marriages that aren’t sacramental.
So, this is where we find the Catholic position: if a marriage is not sacramental (either because the spouses didn’t attempt a sacramental marriage, or if – after the fact – it’s found that there was not a sacramental marriage), then it’s possible to declare this fact: it’s not a declaration of divorce, per se, but a declaration that, at the time of the wedding, there was a lack of sacramental character.
This is a
very difficult proposition to prove, especially if the wedding is far in the past. So, it’s not quite the simple sleight-of-hand that you assert it is!
There’s one other consideration that’s important here: marriage enjoys the favor of the law. In other words, unless it’s conclusively proven that there was a lack of sacramentality at the time of the wedding, a marriage that was entered into in good faith (and seemingly validly) is explicitly presumed to be valid and sacramental.
Does this help?