M
Madaglan
Guest
Question on annulments:
It seems to me that the vast majority of annulments today are at the petition of one of the members of the couple. This I can understand in certain cases, since an impediment is unwillingness (being coerced into it). According to the Latin tradition, the two persons being married are ministers of the sacrament, so if there is a misguided intention by either party, there is reason for annulment.
However, has or can the Latin Church grant an annulment when none of the two parties involved requests for it? For example, let’s say a “father-in-law,” subsequent to research, has reason to believe that his daughter has married a half-brother. His daughter and her husband are happily married, so they believe. Can the “father-in-law” petition Rome to declare an annulment?
If my memory serves me well, one of Martin Luther’s criticisms of annulments was directed against impediments that others (besides the couples themselves) used to break up what Luther saw as marriages ordained by God.
Thanks
It seems to me that the vast majority of annulments today are at the petition of one of the members of the couple. This I can understand in certain cases, since an impediment is unwillingness (being coerced into it). According to the Latin tradition, the two persons being married are ministers of the sacrament, so if there is a misguided intention by either party, there is reason for annulment.
However, has or can the Latin Church grant an annulment when none of the two parties involved requests for it? For example, let’s say a “father-in-law,” subsequent to research, has reason to believe that his daughter has married a half-brother. His daughter and her husband are happily married, so they believe. Can the “father-in-law” petition Rome to declare an annulment?
If my memory serves me well, one of Martin Luther’s criticisms of annulments was directed against impediments that others (besides the couples themselves) used to break up what Luther saw as marriages ordained by God.
Thanks