Another argument for Sola Scriptura

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Richard_Hurtz:
I will look into this again.

Peace to you,
Richard
Peace be with you!

Here is a couple links that have the information you’re looking for:
catholicapologetics.org/ap031100.htm
Unfortunately, Rome was not an ecumenical council (involving the entire Church, and no official records from the council itself still exist).
bible-researcher.com/carthage.html

In Christ,
Rand
 
Rand Al'Thor:
Peace be with you!

Actually, the Canon of Scripture was declared at the council of Rome in 382 and again at the 3rd and 4th Councils of Carthage in 397 and 419. You can check the canons of those councils if you like.
I don’t get why Protestants always–and I do mean ALWAYS–claim that the Church “added” the Deuterocanonicals to the Bible at Trent. I don’t know who first came up with that claim, but it is completely false. What Trent did was not to create a canon of Scripture; what Trent did was to RE-AFFIRM the SAME canon of Scripture in the face of NEW OPPOSITION from Protestants. Trent simply said “These books have always been part of Scripture and the issue is not open to debate”. That’s what happened at Trent.

I think that the Bible was intended for people to read (afterall, Paul does say that all Scripture is beneficial to read), but not to INTERPRET privately. That is what the Church is for. One has only to look at the, what, 35,000 Protestant denominations to see that clearly that is NOT what Christ intended. But I guess sola scriptura is the way to go…:rolleyes:

In Christ,
Rand
Here’s a link to the canons of the Council of Carthage in AD 419. Scroll down to Canon XXIV, where the canonical books of the Bible are listed.

newadvent.org/fathers/3816.htm

And you’re correct, Rand. The Council of Trent merely reaffirmed the existing canon, in response to the attempts by certain Protestant groups to remove books from the existing canon of scripture.
 
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Richard_Hurtz:
Actually, the Canon of Scripture was declared at the Council of Trent.
Just to clarify what I meant.

Around the end of the fourth century, The Church settled the confusion and established the canon of the OT and NT with a series of councils and decrees.

382AD - Pope Damasus, wrote a decree listing the present OT and NT canon of 73 books.
393AD - Council of Hippo approved the 73 book OT and NT canon.
397AD - Council of Carthage also approved the 73 book OT and NT canon.
405AD - Pope St. Innocent wrote a letter confirming the 73 book OT and NT canon approved at Hippo and Carthage.
419AD - Second Council of Carthage also approved the 73 book OT and NT canon.
1441AD - the ecumenical council of Florence formally defined the same 73 book list of Scripture.
1546AD - the ecumenical council of Trent** formally defined ** the same 73 books as the canon of the Bible.
Secondly, if the Bible was “not intended to be read privately”, why would you have no problem with it?
Sorry, forgot the “not”. Hey, that rhymes! 😃
I would have to assume that your meaning is that God “did not intend” for the Bible to be used this way. If that is your meaning, then why would you have “no problem” with this unintended use?
I don’t see any problem with privately reading the Bible as long we don’t make our own personal judgments regarding faith or morality based on what we just think it is saying to us. Only the Holy Mother Church can make those judgments.
 
Rand Al'Thor:
Peace be with you!

Actually, the Canon of Scripture was declared at the council of Rome in 382 and again at the 3rd and 4th Councils of Carthage in 397 and 419. You can check the canons of those councils if you like.
I don’t get why Protestants always–and I do mean ALWAYS–claim that the Church “added” the Deuterocanonicals to the Bible at Trent. I don’t know who first came up with that claim, but it is completely false. What Trent did was not to create a canon of Scripture; what Trent did was to RE-AFFIRM the SAME canon of Scripture in the face of NEW OPPOSITION from Protestants. Trent simply said “These books have always been part of Scripture and the issue is not open to debate”. That’s what happened at Trent.

I think that the Bible was intended for people to read (afterall, Paul does say that all Scripture is beneficial to read), but not to INTERPRET privately. That is what the Church is for. One has only to look at the, what, 35,000 Protestant denominations to see that clearly that is NOT what Christ intended. But I guess sola scriptura is the way to go…:rolleyes:

In Christ,
Rand

In Christ,
Rand
I had a few questions regarding this.

If the Canon of Scripture was defined at the Council of Rome in 382, what need was there to “redefine” the same Canon of Scripture again 15 years later at the 3rd Council of Carthage in 397 and then yet a third time at the 4th Council of Carthage in 419?

Why the need for 3 separate councils to define the same Canon of Scripture 3 times in a span of less than 40 years?

If the authority of Rome was “well established” at this point in time, why the need to keep “redefining the same Canon” over and over again?

One reason may be that these Councils were local rather than Ecumenical. Another reason may be that at this time the various churches did not recognize the Bishop of Rome as the leader of the “Universal” church. This line of reasoning acknowledges the “self-revealing” nature of God’s Word as recognized by Sola Scriptura.

If an Infallible Magesterium is required to define the Canon, how did the OT Jews recognize Scripture? Did they have an Infallible Magesterium to define the Canon for them? If so, at what point did it become Fallible?

As far as denominations go, so what if there are 35,000? At the time of Christ there were Sadducees, Pharisees, Essenes, Samaritans, etc…did Jesus condemn their denominationalism? Could you please point me to the passage where Jesus condemned the Jews for not being of the same ‘party’?

More to the point, in what way does the alleged unity of the RCC lend itself to interpretive unity regarding Scripture? What is the Catholic position on Predestination for example? Does the Catholic Church hold to a literal 6 day creation or a figurative ‘long era’ creation?

Blessings,
Richard
 
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IanS:
I don’t see any problem with privately reading the Bible as long we don’t make our own personal judgments regarding faith or morality based on what we just think it is saying to us. Only the Holy Mother Church can make those judgments.
I don’t really see how this is an advantage as you’re still on your hook to correctly read, interpret, and apply the teachings of Mother Church. All this construct does is to abstract the problem out one layer while encapsulating the decrees in oblique terminology.

Peace to you,
Richard
 
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Richard_Hurtz:
If an Infallible Magesterium is required to define the Canon, how did the OT Jews recognize Scripture? Did they have an Infallible Magesterium to define the Canon for them? If so, at what point did it become Fallible?
The Jewish canon was neither agreed upon nor closed at the time of Christ. Some say that technically, the canon is still not closed.
As far as denominations go, so what if there are 35,000? At the time of Christ there were Sadducees, Pharisees, Essenes, Samaritans, etc…did Jesus condemn their denominationalism? Could you please point me to the passage where Jesus condemned the Jews for not being of the same ‘party’?
You’ll find that passage right next to the one on the ethics of fetal stem-cell research. The answer to your question arises from Jesus’ positive statements, not on a specific denial. He stated that he would build “my church” – not churches, not denominations, not sects: “I will build my church.” In John 10 he states, “there shall be one flock, one shepherd.” And in John 17 he prays: "Holy Father, keep them in thy name, which thou hast given me, that they may be one, even as we are one . . . that they may all be one; even as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be in us, so that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. . . . The glory which thou hast given me I have given to them, that they may be one even as we are one.
Jesus prays that they might all be one “so that the world may believe.” The unity of the Apostles is key to the authentic teaching and for their preaching “so that the world may believe.”
More to the point, in what way does the alleged unity of the RCC lend itself to interpretive unity regarding Scripture?
There are very few passages in Scripture which the Church demands be interpreted in a specific way. Catholics are required to believe that God created the world. We are not told that we must believe it happened in 6 24-hour days.
 
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Richard_Hurtz:
I don’t really see how this is an advantage as you’re still on your hook to correctly read, interpret, and apply the teachings of Mother Church. All this construct does is to abstract the problem out one layer while encapsulating the decrees in oblique terminology.

Peace to you,
Richard
Well, that’s your opinion, and you are certainly entitled to it. But the fact is for me, it was only by reading Sacred Scripture with the guidance of the Catholic Church that I was able to turn away from being a self-destructive atheist. If I had read the Bible the way protestants do, I would have probably been able to justify a lot of my behavior and still be very lost. I have protestant family members who are perfect examples of this. If I had never embraced the Bride of Christ, I shutter to think of what I would be today.
 
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IanS:
Well, that’s your opinion, and you are certainly entitled to it. But the fact is for me, it was only by reading Sacred Scripture with the guidance of the Catholic Church that I was able to turn away from being a self-destructive atheist. If I had read the Bible the way protestants do, I would have probably been able to justify a lot of my behavior and still be very lost. I have protestant family members who are perfect examples of this. If I had never embraced the Bride of Christ, I shutter to think of what I would be today.
I can make the same claim regarding my Catholilc relatives, some of whom although “born and raised in the Church” have professed a disbelief of Purgatory and a belief in reincarnation.
They also think that Church’s teaching on contraception is ‘misguided’. The same have not attended confession in years, yet continue to receive communion on a semi-regular basis.

Peace to you,
Richard
 
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trumpet152:
I know we see these all the time, but I’ve never heard this argument. My friend was telling me about it. Perhaps I could get some help.

Obviously, the most effective argument against scripture alone is that scripture does not claim it. I need no help here.

But on the issue of the canon, this argument seemed to catch me off guard:
“The apostles approved the canon themselves. They gave the authority on the list of books. By 100 AD there was a definitive list. After the death of the last apostle, sola Scriptura took effect.”

Any thoughts on it? Easy answers or refutations?
Where is this list?

His argument would have to be based on history as I see it, on tradition as you see it.
 
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Richard_Hurtz:
I can make the same claim regarding my Catholilc relatives, some of whom although “born and raised in the Church” have professed a disbelief of Purgatory and a belief in reincarnation.
They also think that Church’s teaching on contraception is ‘misguided’. The same have not attended confession in years, yet continue to receive communion on a semi-regular basis.

Peace to you,
Richard
What does that have to do with the teaching of the Catholic Church or with the canon of Scripture.
 
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mercygate:
The Jewish canon was neither agreed upon nor closed at the time of Christ. Some say that technically, the canon is still not closed.
If Trent, Rome, Carthage (twice), and other councils have ‘defined’ (Infallibly, in the case of Trent) the Canon, in what way do “some” say that it is not closed? That would seem to be in opposition to Trent, at least.

When Jesus says “even as we are one” what about this leads you to believe that different denominations are not permitted?
Isn’t the Godhead three in one? Three persons yet one God?
What makes you think that there cannot be unity in Christ in that same way among believers in different denominations?

Blessings,
Richard
 
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Richard_Hurtz:
If Trent, Rome, Carthage (twice), and other councils have ‘defined’ (Infallibly, in the case of Trent) the Canon, in what way do “some” say that it is not closed? That would seem to be in opposition to Trent, at least.
Sorry if I did not make it clear that I was referring to Jews and the Jewish canon.
When Jesus says “even as we are one” what about this leads you to believe that different denominations are not permitted?
Isn’t the Godhead three in one? Three persons yet one God?
What makes you think that there cannot be unity in Christ in that same way among believers in different denominations?

Blessings,
Richard
Insofar as Christians share common belief, we are kinda-sorta “one.” But just as Jesus had a physical body when he walked on earth among us as a man, Catholics believe that his Church also has a recognizable, physical Body today.

Ask anyone who holds the view that denominational differences are unimportant why he shouldn’t, therefore, be Catholic since the Catholic Church most clearly exemplifies the unity Christ envisioned for his church.
 
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Richard_Hurtz:
I can make the same claim regarding my Catholilc relatives, some of whom although “born and raised in the Church” have professed a disbelief of Purgatory and a belief in reincarnation.
They also think that Church’s teaching on contraception is ‘misguided’. The same have not attended confession in years, yet continue to receive communion on a semi-regular basis.

Peace to you,
Richard
Ah, yes. But in the Catholic Church, we know that these people are not believing or living THE faith. In fact, if they were Methodists, they wouldn’t be either. That is why doctrine matters. Some Joe Sixpack nattering about reincarnation who comes to East Jesus Gospel Chapel on Sundays is no more professing Christianity than he would be if he were Catholic. Stuff like this is not a denominational issue. I don’t know why you brought it up.

Firm and well formulated doctrine is one of the most beautiful things about the Church. The guy next to me can be a material heretic, but that doesn’t change the faith.
 
You’re right! The Apostles did cannonize ALL 46 books of the Old Testament!

Shame on Protestants and Mormons and Jehovah Witnesses and etc… for deleting books from the Bible the Apostles gave us in the LXX.

Shame shame shame on them!

Even their own logic proves them wrong!:dancing:
 
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Richard_Hurtz:
I had a few questions regarding this.

If the Canon of Scripture was defined at the Council of Rome in 382, what need was there to “redefine” the same Canon of Scripture again 15 years later at the 3rd Council of Carthage in 397 and then yet a third time at the 4th Council of Carthage in 419?
The canon was not “redefined” (ie changed) but “reaffirmed”.
One reason may be that these Councils were local rather than Ecumenical. Another reason may be that at this time the various churches did not recognize the Bishop of Rome as the leader of the “Universal” church. This line of reasoning acknowledges the “self-revealing” nature of God’s Word as recognized by Sola Scriptura.
No. You are trying to build an edifice on very shaky ground. Councils reaffirmed the 382 Canon, not because they distrusted the Pope, but because this was an important issue, and Councils could be used to spread the teaching very widely as the delegates went home to their provinces.
As far as denominations go, so what if there are 35,000? At the time of Christ there were Sadducees, Pharisees, Essenes, Samaritans, etc…did Jesus condemn their denominationalism? Could you please point me to the passage where Jesus condemned the Jews for not being of the same ‘party’?
You are confusing the old and new covenants. The old covenant was a covenant of the Law, of a written book. The New Covenant is not a covenant of Law, but is based instead on a living CHURCH. This church is one mysticl body, in which unity, not division, is paramount.
More to the point, in what way does the alleged unity of the RCC lend itself to interpretive unity regarding Scripture? What is the Catholic position on Predestination for example?
The catholic position on predestination is set out in the Canons of Justification at the Council of Trent,
socrates58.blogspot.com/2005/12/council-of-trent-canons-on.html
and in the later papal condemnations of Jansenism.
 
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Richard_Hurtz:
I can make the same claim regarding my Catholilc relatives, some of whom although “born and raised in the Church” have professed a disbelief of Purgatory and a belief in reincarnation.
They also think that Church’s teaching on contraception is ‘misguided’. The same have not attended confession in years, yet continue to receive communion on a semi-regular basis.

Peace to you,
Richard
Then your relatives are at least second-degree heretics. How is that the Church’s fault? My relatives are doing things that are fully permitted by their churches. Not even close to the same my friend.

Perhaps if you came back home and became a good representative of the gift that was given to you through your baptism, it would rub off on your relatives.

Off this subject, but let me ask you something. Do you believe it is possible that anyone has ever said or declared anything that not written in the Bible, but is still the infallible word of God?
 
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Richard_Hurtz:
I don’t really see how this is an advantage as you’re still on your hook to correctly read, interpret, and apply the teachings of Mother Church.
Actually, this is not a problem. The Church, as a living body with a teaching magisterium, can explain its own documents and proclaim its own teachings. People can teach. Books can’t. The bible, as a book, is an inanimate object, unable to explain itself.
 
If there was a definitive list by 100AD, why did three councils bother to make lists 200-300 years later?

Remember, that person’s claim is completely extra-biblical. Sounds like he’s relying on infallible Tradition! Did he offer any evidence?

Just ask why so many Church councils waited 200-300 years before repeating what everybody knew since 100AD.

Oh yeah, what about the Deuterocanonicals? Did the councils just add them after the canon had been fixed for 200 years? If so, where is the evidence of the upheaval that would have resulted from this breaking of the accepted canon? There is no evidence, because there was no upheaval, because there was no 100AD canon that didn’t include the deuteros.
 
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Richard_Hurtz:
If an Infallible Magesterium is required to define the Canon, how did the OT Jews recognize Scripture? Did they have an Infallible Magesterium to define the Canon for them? If so, at what point did it become Fallible?
This is a fallacious argument. The Jews did NOT have a canon. In fact, there was an ATTEMPT for Jews to form a canon in 90 AD, in what we refer to as the Council of Jamnia. This was obviously after the life, death and resurrection of Christ. Thus, anything established by Jewish authorities at this time would have no authority over any Christian. Or let me rephrase that…SHOULD have no authority over any Christian.
 
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Richard_Hurtz:
I can make the same claim regarding my Catholilc relatives, some of whom although “born and raised in the Church” have professed a disbelief of Purgatory and a belief in reincarnation.
They also think that Church’s teaching on contraception is ‘misguided’. The same have not attended confession in years, yet continue to receive communion on a semi-regular basis.

Peace to you,
Richard
I believe in Purgatory too. That kinda goes along with being Catholic. The other ones are contrary to Catholic teaching. Thus, the distinction becomes, there is no way to determine who is “orthodox” as a Protestant, because everyone appeals to the same “source of truth”. With Catholics, we can make that determination by the set doctrine of the Church. When one departs from that teaching, they have departed from orthodoxy into heresy.
 
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