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Daniel_Marsh
Guest
not all protestants believe in the trinity. those that do see clear evidence in scripture for the trinity. very few protestants see clear evidence in scripture for mary being born without sin. thats it.
Daniel those that do see clear evidence in scripture for the trinity. [/QUOTE said:Why? Where?
Daniel Marsh:
very few protestants see clear evidence in scripture for mary being born without sin. QUOTE]
Why not? Where is it lacking?
Romans 3, which states that all human beings have sinned–and of course there are many other passages to that effect.Christ is said in Hebrews to be like us in all respects except sin–that would seem to imply that He is unique in His sinlessness, since this is mentioned as something that sets him apart from everyone else. I don’t deny that one could argue for exceptions to the rule, and I know that in Catholic theology Mary’s preservation from all sin is part of Christ’s saving work. If we had sufficient reasons to do so, it would be legitimate to interpret these passages so as not to conflict with the IC. So this particular reason for rejecting the IC works in conjunction with the absence of sufficiently compelling reasons for believing it.Please clarify your points, if possible:
- What conflict with the apparent sense of Scripture does the I.C. have?
I don’t see any meaning in that question (it’s a bit like the guy who said he had a hundred witnesses who had not seen him commit a murder). Perhaps it would be helpful if I explained the ways in which the Trinity *does *conflict with the apparent sense of Scripture.What conflict with the apparent sense of Scripture does the Trinity not have?
The sense that a text appears to have before I conclude on the basis of some other text (or something outside Scripture) that it cannot mean that. Of course this is going to be very different depending on who it is being “apparent” to! All I’m saying is that if I have to do a double-take as I read the Bible and say to myself “it looks as if the text says X but I have to believe that it says Y,” then that’s going to build up in my mind as evidence against Y. If I come to believe that X is less implausible than I thought, or that there are other reasons to believe Y than I had realized, then I may remember that initial, naive reaction to the text and it may seriously influence me. (This is how I came to believe in baptismal regeneration, for instance–I remember thinking that John 3:5 sounded as if it referred to baptism, but of course it couldn’t. I know that other people don’t always seem to respond to John 3:5 that way, but I did. So when Protestants come up with elaborate alternative hypotheses, it’s hard for me not to laugh.)What does “apparent sense” mean?
The IC is not even hinted at until the fifth century, in one of Augustine’s anti-Pelagian writings. It’s not a conceivable idea until then because you don’t have a full-fledged doctrine of original sin. You can’t believe Mary is free from original sin until you have an original sin for her to be free from.
- Can you please provide evidence that the Trinity is more ancient and universal than the I.C?
I’ll be happy to explain. You are wrong about Protestants.Why does this matter either way? I thought tradition didn’t matter to Protestants. Please explain.
- Why is the Trinity more logical than the I.C.?
The Church does not teach that Jesus would have been “polluted” if Mary were a sinner. It teaches that it is proper that Jesus would make for himself an immaculate woman for his mother, and based on Sacred Scripture and Apostolic Tradition the church teaches that this is what he did.I don’t think this is the case for the IC at all. The “problem” allegedly solved by the IC is a non-problem. Jesus came into a sinful world. To assume that Jesus would somehow be polluted by being the son of a woman who was conceived with original sin assumes way too much that we simply don’t know.
What? Have you failed to read Scott Hahn’s book, “Hail, Holy Queen - The Mother of God in the Word of God”? or, do you just not believe his numerous citations of Old and New Testatment regarding the foreshadowing of the Blessed Virgin Mary, including the Immaculate Conception?The Immaculate Conception is not even hinted at in scripture except for one phrase…“full of grace” Luke 1:28 of which the meaning of is greatly debated(of course Catholics disagree thus the whole second Eve…Ark of Covenant argument). It is also a later developing Christian tradition based upon my reserach.
BH
I don’t think it “somehow” assumes anything… there’s a lot we already know just from Freshman Bio. For example, there are plenty of diseases, drug addictions, noxious influences, etc. that can be transmitted across the placenta to a developing fetus, or via breast milk to a newborn infant.To assume that Jesus would somehow be polluted by being the son of a woman who was conceived with original sin assumes way too much that we simply don’t know.
While I know you do not acknowledge the authority of the Catholic Church, regardless, the Church has stated infallibly that Mary the Mother of God was immaculately conceived. Therefore, it is the Truth. The basis for the dogma in scripture and tradition has been well established here and weight behind the argument is considerable.My basic objection remains–we’re dealing with a highly speculative argument without a lot of weight behind it.
I said that a problem is not a prerequiste for the Truth. I didn’t say dotrinal definition. My point was and is that the Truth is the Truth. Whether a dogma was defined in the first century or last week they are both equally true. The age of every dogma is eternal as they are statements of the Truth which is the same yesterday, today and forever.The fact that you don’t think a problem needs to exist for a dogma to be defined is one of the marks of the difference between modern (I don’t mean “contemporary” but modern as in the past few centuries) Catholicism and Anglicanism. And on this point I think Anglicans have the more traditional approach.
I agree with Fr. Louis Bouyer (a convert to Catholicism) that doctrinal definitions are the scars left on the Church’s body by the errors over which she has been victorious. Unnecessary doctrinal definitions amount to wilful self-mutilation.
Nope have not read it. I have read the Bible enough to know that many people will see all manners of foreshadowing and ignore everything else around it. I know that Paul never spoke about it. I know that Jesus never taught it. I know that Peter never taught it. I know that James never taught it. I know that John did not teach it. I also know when it first started to appear in documented sources.What? Have you failed to read Scott Hahn’s book, “Hail, Holy Queen - The Mother of God in the Word of God”? or, do you just not believe his numerous citations of Old and New Testatment regarding the foreshadowing of the Blessed Virgin Mary, including the Immaculate Conception?
I can use your same argument to explain that the Trinity is not true. As such, given that you believe in the Trinity, this is not a valid argument. Please at least be consistent.Nope have not read it. I have read the Bible enough to know that many people will see all manners of foreshadowing and ignore everything else around it. I know that Paul never spoke about it. I know that Jesus never taught it. I know that Peter never taught it. I know that James never taught it. I know that John did not teach it. I also know when it first started to appear in documented sources.
BH
I can fire off 50 verses which speak of false doctrine and say that foreshadows something…
I would need documented early tradition
I would need it to be in scripture and not contingent upon the various meanings of “full of grace”(of which I have read almost all the arguments for and against I suspect)
No you cannot. The NT is full of references of the relationship of God, Christ, and the Holy Spirit. How can you deny that? Surely you are not.I can use your same argument to explain that the Trinity is not true. As such, given that you believe in the Trinity, this is not a valid argument. Please at least be consistent.
Just to clarify: Yes, “Trinity” is a word. It is also a concept that people came to understand through the Bible and Tradition. “Immaculate Conception” is two words. It is also a concept that people came to understand through the Bible and Tradition.No you cannot. The NT is full of references of the relationship of God, Christ, and the Holy Spirit. How can you deny that? Surely you are not.
You do not understand my position at all. “Trinity” is a word. It summarizes and attempts to define a relationship that appears througout scripture. I believe what the Bible teaches about God, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit. I do not care what you call it. That is irrelevant to me. Trinity. Triunity. It is just a word. The importantance is in what it describes.
The Immaculate Conception is based upon one verse and conjecture about verses that possibly foreshadow an event.
Let me be as clear as possible. I do believe that parts of the Hebrew Bible predict or foreshadow future events. I do not go back and try to proof text parts of the Hebrew Bible to support a later developing Christian tradition.
My view is not inconsistent at all. If scripture or early tradition supported the Immaculate Conception, I would have no difficulty at all accepting it. It is no big deal for me at all…EXCEPT…I am not about to incorporate a belief that is not found in scripture or that can be traced back to 33 CE to 70 CE ish…
Paul defends tradition(teachings from earlier times). He does not support a belief in something pops up 120 years after the fact.
BH
is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene
ExactlyWhat puzzles me about IC is the infinite regress it implies. If it was somehow necessary or fitting that Christ be born of a sinless vessel, wouldn’t it be reasonable to say that a being as naturally wonderful and sinless as Mary ought, herself, to have been born of a sinless vessel? If Christ’s perfection implied Mary’s sinlessness, then wouldn’t it be unfitting that the sinless Mary be born of a sinful mother & father? I can’t recall the names that tradition ascribes to Mary’s parents, but shouldn’t they have been perfect vessels to Mary to take? And her four grandparents? And her eight grandparents? And … well, you follow me.
I never thought that denying the IC was in any way disrespectful of the Virgin. If the absolute worst thing one could say about Mary is that she was touched by original sin … well, that still puts her far ahead of anybody else who ever lived, saving her Son.
No, because Mary was not a divine and Holy God who humbled Himself and became man.What puzzles me about IC is the infinite regress it implies. If it was somehow necessary or fitting that Christ be born of a sinless vessel, wouldn’t it be reasonable to say that a being as naturally wonderful and sinless as Mary ought, herself, to have been born of a sinless vessel? If Christ’s perfection implied Mary’s sinlessness, then wouldn’t it be unfitting that the sinless Mary be born of a sinful mother & father? I can’t recall the names that tradition ascribes to Mary’s parents, but shouldn’t they have been perfect vessels to Mary to take? And her four grandparents? And her eight grandparents? And … well, you follow me.
I never thought that denying the IC was in any way disrespectful of the Virgin. If the absolute worst thing one could say about Mary is that she was touched by original sin … well, that still puts her far ahead of anybody else who ever lived, saving her Son.