J
Jaypeeto4
Guest
Dear Triumphguy,
thanks again for the above.
Again, sir, I already know that the sacraments do not depend on the holiness or
righteousness of the minister.
But, for sacraments that PROPERLY belong to the BISHOP,
as Confirmation DOES,
then the Ministerial Priest HAS TO HAVE PERMISSION from the
Bishop to licitly perform those actions.
He must also have the general intention to,
as theologians (not me) put it,
“Do What the Church Does”.
I was not questioning Ex Opere Operato. Not at all.
I was stricken with worry that
A) My priest may not, in 1999, have HAD the necessary Permission
…from the Bishop to perform the confirmations. and,
knowing his propensity for believing (and saying) for example,
that General (as opposed to personal) Confessions are sufficient for ALL sins
((he kinda found listening to personal confessions a bit of a pain, apparently)),
and for deliberately disobeying church rules, including those issued by the Vatican,
B) I therefore also kind of wondered if he even, back then, had a
…general intention “to do what the church does” when he Confirmed us in 1999.
I always assumed that he had, but all this was coming together in my head at once
because I had never
heard about our Archbishop REVOKING the permission of priests
to confirm Adult Converts who have already been baptized – validly even –
in another denomination.
I found out, after Mass, that my 12 or 13 year assumption had been RIGHT,
that he DID INDEED have standing permission from our Archbishop in 1999 to confirm
adults baptized validly in other denominations. ON THIS POINT, he was not disobedient.
I also realized that I had no SERIOUS reason, therefore, to believe that when he Confirmed us, he did not have a general intention “to do what the church does,”
which, if he did not have that general intention, WOULD, according to all reliable theologians, make the sacrament invalid.
Again, all this was coming together in my head at once last night. Wondering?
Surprise. Unawareness of new rules vs. old rules and old permissions, etc.
Also, I forgot the concept of “licit” vs. “valid.”
For example, even Father G, the famous suspended Priest, who cannot LAWFULLY
consecrate the Eucharist because of his suspension,
can still VALIDLY consecrate it. But his consecrating it, if Suspended or otherwise forbidden to confect it, IS an act of Disobedience. But, he STILL CAN consecrate it validly, just not LICITLY.
So, if anyone in the Archdiocese I live in, who was baptized in another church,
and was at the Easter Vigil last night, if he or she was confirmed by his or her priest
last night, and IF that priest did not personally baptize you last night,
that priest had no licit right to Confirm you. That’s IN MY archdiocese that this rule applies. It is a rule, a NEW rule, a revocation of the OLD rule and permission.
Of course, the Abp CAN give permission to an INDIVIDUAL priest in the diocese that
he DENIES to all other priests in the diocese. That, too, is the bishop’s perogative.
So I have one more question:
When it comes to the EUCHARIST, even a priest FORBIDDEN BY HIS BISHOP to consecrate the eucharist, can still VALIDLY consecrate it.
I know that that applies to the Eucharist.
It is a disobedient act, but you would still be receiving the real body and blood of Christ.
So the question, this applies to the eucharist.
DOES it apply to the other sacraments as well?
I know, for example, that the Church considers the marriage tribunals and annulments of the SSPX to be not valid (or at least DID consider that to be the case).
Can a priest validly, even if ILLICITLY, confect or perform, ALL of the seven sacraments??
Thanks for any info.
Love to all,
Jaypeeto4
And I am still going to go to Confession asap. Thanks all.
thanks again for the above.
Again, sir, I already know that the sacraments do not depend on the holiness or
righteousness of the minister.
But, for sacraments that PROPERLY belong to the BISHOP,
as Confirmation DOES,
then the Ministerial Priest HAS TO HAVE PERMISSION from the
Bishop to licitly perform those actions.
He must also have the general intention to,
as theologians (not me) put it,
“Do What the Church Does”.
I was not questioning Ex Opere Operato. Not at all.
I was stricken with worry that
A) My priest may not, in 1999, have HAD the necessary Permission
…from the Bishop to perform the confirmations. and,
knowing his propensity for believing (and saying) for example,
that General (as opposed to personal) Confessions are sufficient for ALL sins
((he kinda found listening to personal confessions a bit of a pain, apparently)),
and for deliberately disobeying church rules, including those issued by the Vatican,
B) I therefore also kind of wondered if he even, back then, had a
…general intention “to do what the church does” when he Confirmed us in 1999.
I always assumed that he had, but all this was coming together in my head at once
because I had never
heard about our Archbishop REVOKING the permission of priests
to confirm Adult Converts who have already been baptized – validly even –
in another denomination.
I found out, after Mass, that my 12 or 13 year assumption had been RIGHT,
that he DID INDEED have standing permission from our Archbishop in 1999 to confirm
adults baptized validly in other denominations. ON THIS POINT, he was not disobedient.
I also realized that I had no SERIOUS reason, therefore, to believe that when he Confirmed us, he did not have a general intention “to do what the church does,”
which, if he did not have that general intention, WOULD, according to all reliable theologians, make the sacrament invalid.
Again, all this was coming together in my head at once last night. Wondering?
Surprise. Unawareness of new rules vs. old rules and old permissions, etc.
Also, I forgot the concept of “licit” vs. “valid.”
For example, even Father G, the famous suspended Priest, who cannot LAWFULLY
consecrate the Eucharist because of his suspension,
can still VALIDLY consecrate it. But his consecrating it, if Suspended or otherwise forbidden to confect it, IS an act of Disobedience. But, he STILL CAN consecrate it validly, just not LICITLY.
So, if anyone in the Archdiocese I live in, who was baptized in another church,
and was at the Easter Vigil last night, if he or she was confirmed by his or her priest
last night, and IF that priest did not personally baptize you last night,
that priest had no licit right to Confirm you. That’s IN MY archdiocese that this rule applies. It is a rule, a NEW rule, a revocation of the OLD rule and permission.
Of course, the Abp CAN give permission to an INDIVIDUAL priest in the diocese that
he DENIES to all other priests in the diocese. That, too, is the bishop’s perogative.
So I have one more question:
When it comes to the EUCHARIST, even a priest FORBIDDEN BY HIS BISHOP to consecrate the eucharist, can still VALIDLY consecrate it.
I know that that applies to the Eucharist.
It is a disobedient act, but you would still be receiving the real body and blood of Christ.
So the question, this applies to the eucharist.
DOES it apply to the other sacraments as well?
I know, for example, that the Church considers the marriage tribunals and annulments of the SSPX to be not valid (or at least DID consider that to be the case).
Can a priest validly, even if ILLICITLY, confect or perform, ALL of the seven sacraments??
Thanks for any info.
Love to all,
Jaypeeto4
And I am still going to go to Confession asap. Thanks all.
