D
dailey
Guest
The question that is being asked right now in the “Ask the Apoligist” section is whether salvation is dependent on a personal relations with Jesus. The last sentence of the answer given was “Those who, through fault of their own, have not known Jesus as their savior, can–if they have lived a life of virtue, be saved.”
When I first read this, I thought a word was accidently left out? I thought it was “through NO fault of their own”. Or is the sentence correct and it is what the church teaches? I was always taught in Catholic school that even if a person is “good”, if they rejected Jesus, then they are at risk of losing their soul. Now I am confused.
When I first read this, I thought a word was accidently left out? I thought it was “through NO fault of their own”. Or is the sentence correct and it is what the church teaches? I was always taught in Catholic school that even if a person is “good”, if they rejected Jesus, then they are at risk of losing their soul. Now I am confused.