Any good response to this Muslim's charge that Paul began Christianity?

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If we could answer this, it would probably be a huge step towards proving to Muslims that Paul did not start Christianity.
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…the source of a prophet’s knowledge is Divine teaching, revelation and inspiration. But the source of the false prophet is human teaching, past experience, deception and perjury. That is exactly what we found in Paul’s rhetoric including telling the readers that “Jesus” was cursed by God.

Christians claim that *Jesus *had redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: *for it is written, Cursed is every one that hanged on a tree." (Galatians 3:13).

***Has Paul been honest writing this or he has a hidden agenda? If we ask any Christian *“By whom was Jesus cursed?” ***Most Christians would answer without any hesitation *“cursed by people."

But the Paul, who made this allegation has different answer, since he is not honest when quoting his reference i.e. Deuteronomy 21:23 {“ . . . that is hanged is accursed of God; . . . "} Paul has covertly tried to hide “God” making it easy for Christians to accept the connection between the Old Testament’s curse and Jesus.*

**Christians accepts this connection without thinking, thus, by doing so Christians are automatically accepting Jesus to be cursed by God Almighty, without realizing Paul’s assault on Jesus. Because making a reasoned connection between Deuteronomy 21:23 and Matthew 27:38, Mark 15:27, Luke 23:33, John 19:18 one will learn that “Jesus is cursed by God” or Christians sham God Jesus cursed by God!

Why Paul is insulting Jesus? What could be his reason for this assault on Jesus? Why *Paul *has perverted the teachings of Jesus and taught the doctrine of trinity?

*Jesus *himself has provided the answer while condemning the Pharisees and warning people in Matthew 16:11-12 & Luke 12:1-2. That is why Jesus’ disciples escaped from Paul as we read in Luke 12:1-2.

Paul confirms Jesus words, perhaps prophecy in Acts 23:6 {“I AM a Pharisee, the son of a Pharisee . . .”}. Notice, that Paul does not say that I was a Pharisee?

Paul became all things to all people (1. Corinthians 9:20-22). Did Jesus become all things to all people to win them like Paul? That is why Jesus cursed hypocrites and Pharisees!

This proves that Paul Passed On The FALSE Gospel!
 
I have successfully argued this:

St. Thomas Christians, in southern India, track their tradition back to the Apostle Thomas. They were not “discovered” by Europeans until the 16 Century. Their believes were so close to the RCC that they have come in to communion.

Since they had similar doctrines as the RCC and our traditions come down from Peter and Paul, then there must have been an “original source” that predated both Apostolic ministries.

In addition to their own web site, New Advent and Wikipedia have lot of good history on them.
 
That poor Muslim soul!

Paul’s preaching and letters were an insightful mix of rhetoric and Bible typology. Much of Paul’s letters are expansions of Old Testament word pictures.

For instance, Christ is often foreshadowed in the Old Testament with sin symbols. Examples: The bronze serpent on the pole, in the Book of Numbers. Paul clearly puzzled over this: “Why does Scripture foreshadow the ‘blemishless lamb’ with sin symbols???”

At 2 Corinthians 5:21 Paul deduces the answer: Christ is “Him-Who-did-not-know-sin-Who-was-made-to-be-sin,” meaning that Christ, though He was sinless, ended-up being treated as though He were Sin, itself, when to purchase saving grace from God’s justice He subjected Himself to the same kind of penalty reserved by God’s justice for our sins.

So, Paul’s teaching is an elaboration of that which is already in Judaism.

It isn’t new. It isn’t a departure.

Ironically, unlike the inspired Bible, the Koran is not built out of types and word pictures.
 
Hello, BibleReader,
“…Paul deduces…”
Well, Paul may have “deduced”, but it was news to
the rabbinic scholars of his day. Judaism *has *no
concept of Original Sin.

One of two things is the case:

-Paul was inspired by God to deduce this
-Paul forced an interpretation on the Hebrew Scriptures
that doesn’t hold water

The Hebrew Scriptures are replete with references to:

“God saves” “God forgives”
“If your sins be as scarlet, I will make them whiter than snow.”

It’s a matter of faith…accept what he wrote, or reject
what he wrote- as erroneous interpretation, incorrectly deduced.

[For that matter, Orthodoxy does not hold with a “stain” that
is washed away…which is why Orthodoxy will not accept
the dogma of the Immaculate Conception. No stain, no need
for being immaculately conceived.]

It truely is a matter of faith: RC’s hold with Original Sin as a stain,
Judaism hasn’t even got a concept of Original Sin, Orthodoxy
denies a stain, and some Reformers thought that humans
are totally depraved in nature, not just “wounded” in nature.

You wrote:
So, Paul’s teaching is an elaboration of that which is already in Judaism.
Some would say it is an “elaboration.” Others would hold
that what he wrote was a mis-interpretation of Judaic
Scriptures.

It’s a matter of faith for all concerned.

reen12
 
To everyone who posted here so far;

Thanks for the informative responses. I will very much it if you perhaps copy and paste these posts under Non-Catholic Religions under the topic ‘Did Paul Start Christianity’? The reason I posted this under apologetics is because I thought there might be well-educated people here as well who do not go to the Non-Catholic Religions topic much.

Thanks.
 
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