G
Gorgias
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I don’t know of a single one who suggests that Mark wasn’t written by Mark. Do you have any evidence to the contrary?Every single one of them?
I don’t know of a single one who suggests that Mark wasn’t written by Mark. Do you have any evidence to the contrary?Every single one of them?
That’s basically how I view the history of the synoptic gospels too. The original writings of St. Matthew, which the Greek version of his gospel is based on, predates the Gospel of St. Mark. But it’s very likely that the Greek translators of St. Matthew original writings added and edited the writings of St. Matthew to include more than what St. Matthew had originally written, including stories that were written down in the Gospel according to St. Mark.buffalo:![]()
Was Augustine’s, Irenaeus, Papias’s, or Origen’s statements that Mark was written before Luke Protestant innovations?This was a Protestant innovation. I think it has run its course.
The Clementine Tradition puts it at Matthew, Luke, Mark and John. St Jerome after, put it at Matthew, Mark, Luke and John.
As if the Bible just fell put of the sky, we now say Markan priority, disregarding the long history.
What I personally believe is that Mark was the first to compose his Gospel in Greek. Matthew wrote in Hebrew, then Mark, then Matthew in Greek, then Luke.
This creates more issues than it solves, though, doesn’t it?What I personally believe is that Mark was the first to compose his Gospel in Greek. Matthew wrote in Hebrew, then Mark, then Matthew in Greek, then Luke.
Didn’t I answer this?If you hold to Matthean priority, then how do you explain the passages in Mark that match passages in Matthew (after all, according to your timeline, Mark was ‘copying’ from a Hebrew manuscript, not a Greek one) – how did they just happen to translate Mark’s Hebrew identically?
If you consider the fact that Mark was a disciple of Peter, and Peter became a disciple before Matthew, it would make sense tha Matthew may have drawn some traditions from Mark and edited his Hebrew original to make Greek Matthew.
I hit ‘reply’ to your post from last week. Still, I’m not sure I buy what you wrote last night:Didn’t I answer this?
Are you suggesting that Mark was Peter’s disciple prior to Matthew becoming an apostle? That just doesn’t make sense.If you consider the fact that Mark was a disciple of Peter, and Peter became a disciple before Matthew, it would make sense tha Matthew may have drawn some traditions from Mark
Here’s the thing: there’s no data to suggest that Matthew translated his Hebrew into Greek. Even Jerome (IIRC) asserts that no one knows who translated it. Even so, you would have to make the case for the reason why Matthew would ‘write’ his Gospel twice, in two languages.and edited his Hebrew original to make Greek Matthew.
I guess Irenaeus and Papias’ statements aren’t evidence.Here’s the thing: there’s no data to suggest that Matthew translated his Hebrew into Greek. Even Jerome (IIRC) asserts that no one knows who translated it.
Here’s what they have to say on the matter of Matthew translating his own Gospel into Greek, AFAIK:I guess Irenaeus and Papias’ statements aren’t evidence.![]()
Therefore Matthew put the logia in an ordered arrangement in the Hebrew language, but each person interpreted them as best he could.
I’m not aware of any statements by either of them, asserting that Matthew either translated his own Gospel into Greek or edited his Gospel, adding Markan material.Matthew also issued a written Gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect while Peter and Paul were preaching at Rome and laying the foundations of the church.
Why does it feel you’re not really reading my post? Lemme break it down for you. Peter was a disciple before Matthew. Mark wrote his Gospel from what Peter told him. So it would make sense for Matthew to use Mark as his source material for writing his Gospel in Greek.Or, are you suggesting that the only items that Matthew pulled from Mark happened prior to Matthew’s call to be an apostle?
Still, a Hebrew Matthew existed. These statements make sense once you consider the facts.I’m not aware of any statements by either of them, asserting that Matthew either translated his own Gospel into Greek or edited his Gospel, adding Markan material.
I dunno. Maybe because you’re not making sense.Why does it feel you’re not really reading my post?
OK… this is what I’d hoped you weren’t saying. Are you suggesting that the sequence of events went something like this:Lemme break it down for you. Peter was a disciple before Matthew. Mark wrote his Gospel from what Peter told him. So it would make sense for Matthew to use Mark as his source material for writing his Gospel in Greek.
I’m making sense. It seems as if you are deliberately not understanding my argument.I dunno. Maybe because you’re not making sense.