J
Juliana1
Guest
Hi. I already accept that polygamy is banned in the New Testament. I am also looking for passages in the Old Testament Bible that shows polygamy was unrighteous.
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There is nothing in the OT (or NT for that matter) that calls polygamy a sin. Sure, there are a lot of problems, like jealousies, envy, neglect, etc that tends to be associated with polygamy, but having marital or interpersonal problems does not equal sin any more than the jealousies in monogamous marriages.Hi. I already accept that polygamy is banned in the New Testament. I am also looking for passages in the Old Testament Bible that shows polygamy was unrighteous.
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So your logic is that if God wanted polygamy, he would have made additional helpers for Adam. The problem with this logic is that it presumes that God had only one way (how he made things in the beginning) to show what he wanted. God could’ve shown polygamy to be okay in multiple ways, like bringing it up later on, and that’s precisely how we find out about it in the Bible, along with all the other rules that God wanted for marriage.Well God gave Adam a helper not helpers.
Not from the Old Testament, which is sacred tradition. There are multiple examples.We know from sacred tradition that polygamy is not ok.
I think the point there is that killing two people is seventy times worse than killing one and nothing to do with polygamy.23 Lamech said to his wives,
“Adah and Zillah,
Listen to my voice,
You wives of Lamech,
Give heed to my speech,
For I [n]have killed a man for wounding me;
And a boy for striking me;
24 If Cain is avenged sevenfold,
Then Lamech seventy-sevenfold.”
Interesting, especially the bit about Sodom. Have you read Genesis 19 4:See the Bible Study I gave here in which I address the problem. Polygamy is condemned even in the OT
I’m not so sure about that. I read those two lines as a type of repetition for the sake of emphasis. We find that in many places in the OT.I think the point there is that killing two people is seventy times worse than killing one
No… that seems an overly literalistic reading of that verse. In the Song of Songs (3:10), we see a reference to the “daughters of Jerusalem.” Would you therefore conclude that Jerusalem was a matriarchy, ruled over by women?in relation to Ezekiel 16 which repeatedly refers to Sodom and her daughters, e.g. verse 49:
Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy.
Could not the ruling council of councilmen be women? Ezekiel strongly suggests that they are. Sodom was a matriarchy would be a natural conclusion.