Anything in the OT that bans polygamy?

[AgnosticBoy]

I wasn’t even arguing my point in that post. My subject in that post was your use of words. I pointed out how they twisted the object of God’s approval from incest to the act of procreation. I figured it would be difficult to write, " Yes I believe God approved incest. And you didn’t, you could only imply it.

Saying that the act was approved because of a “sex act” and not incest is FAR from my style of reasoning. You clearly didn’t explain my point correctly if that was your purpose.

My point was that in order for God to have his hand on the end-product, the means to that end would have had to already been considered morally good. God also wanted them to have a kid together before the pregnancy even started, so that alone justifies my point.

 

[AgnosticBoy]

Do you read my posts? I rebutted that short and sweet I’ll rewrite it…

For Jacob it was not monogamy.

I already acknowledged in my question your agreement with me on Jacob when I said, “you already agreed that loving two women was not monogamy”. What I’m asking is WHO wanted Jacob to love two women? Clearly, that want was for something non-monogamous - so WHO wanted it?

 

[Benadam]

I already acknowledged in my question your agreement with me on Jacob when I said, “you already agreed that loving two women was not monogamy”. What I’m asking is WHO wanted Jacob to love two women? Clearly, that want was for something non-monogamous - so WHO wanted it?

That isn’t a rebuttle and I’ve answered that many times. The only person who prefered polygamy in the story is LABAN. A father of lies. Isn’t it significant that in your view the evil father’s explicit desire is the same as the desire of God you speculate?

You obviously can’t separate what God wills marriage to be from what God wills the maternal environment to be.

The latter is the environment in which man enters into life. Could it be that God always wants man to experience love in that environment no matter how it happened?

It’s obvious then that God wantied children to enter life loved is the reason He wanted Jacob to love two women.

I.

 

[AgnosticBoy]

That isn’t a rebuttle and I’ve answered that many times. The only person who prefered polygamy in the story is LABAN. A father of lies. Isn’t it significant that in your view the evil father’s explicit desire is the same as the desire of God you speculate?

I didn’t ask you who started or who “preferred” Jacob’s polygamous marriage. An act is an act whether it is a “preferred” act or a normal “act” (no feelings either way). Acts can be morally evaluated and so can wants. So in Genesis 29:30-33, we have God wanting ONE man to love TWO women. God acts on his wants by assisting in a process (impregnating) that would involve Jacob having sex with TWO women.

You obviously can’t separate what God wills marriage to be from what God wills the maternal environment to be.

The latter is the environment in which man enters into life. Could it be that God always wants man to experience love in that environment no matter how it happened?

This is problem that I pointed out earlier. You’re trying to use the ends (“experience a loving environment”) to justify the means ("no matter how it happens - polygamy, etc.). According to official Catholic teaching which I quoted earlier, the ends can not justify the means and I happen to agree because a God who can do no wrong would mean that His means must be moral as well as his end goals.

It’s obvious then that God wantied children to enter life loved is the reason He wanted Jacob to love two women.

Again, within the Christian worldview, the ends can not justify the means and that’s especially true when God acts. He is a "perferct’ ALL-good God.

 

[littlebird]

In the OT , even incest had to happen in the beginning. Polygamy today, is simply not a healthy lifestyle.

Many people want to believe that whatever they desire is best , right or good for them as long as they are honest and do not see or know that they are hurting anyone.

 

[Benadam]

I didn’t ask you who started or who “preferred” Jacob’s polygamous marriage.

I understand that. I’ve answered the question you asked several times. God wanting two women loved. Again, it’s because they are his wives and his children’s mothers. .

I can accept your claim only if God acted before the marriage in a way that makes it clear that His hand was at work bringing it about.
The acts of God after it is arranged by human hands are unable to be the basis for knowing God’s mind concerning the form marriage.

This is problem that I pointed out earlier. You’re trying to use the ends (“experience a loving environment”) to justify the means ("no matter how it happens - polygamy, etc.).

Not to justify the means. My point nullified your claim that polygamy is the reason God wanted Jacob’s wives loved… Your argument requires God’s approval of polygamy mine doesn’t.
The need to justify polygamy isn’t necessary for my argument. It’s a given that God wants Jacob to love both wives.

 

[AgnosticBoy]

I understand that. I’ve answered the question you asked several times. God wanting two women loved. Again, it’s because they are his wives and his children’s mothers. .

I didn’t ask you WHY God wanted Jacob to love TWO women, but instead I asked you WHO wanted Jacob to love TWO women. There’s a difference between WHy and WHO! So now you admit that it was ‘God’, who has a perfectly moral will, wanted Jacob to love TWO women.

Now you’re saying that God wanted it because Jacob was already in polygamy. It’s true that Jacob was already in polygamy, but wanting a man to love and impregnate two women are non-monogamous acts as well. You admitted that loving TWO women was non-monogamous, so now you’re saying that God wanted non-monogamous acts because Jacob was already in non-monogamy? That makes no sense, if you’re trying NOT to justify non-monogamous acts.

Not to justify the means. My point nullified your claim that polygamy is the reason God wanted Jacob’s wives loved… Your argument requires God’s approval of polygamy mine doesn’t.

The need to justify polygamy isn’t necessary for my argument. It’s a given that God wants Jacob to love both wives.

You’re not calling it polygamy but you do use a different word or words that still involves using the ends to justify the means. God’s end-goal according to you was “experience a loving environment” and the means was "God wanting Jacob to love TWO women". Loving two women would have to be moral by itself in order for God to use it as a means.

 

[AgnosticBoy]

Where else do you see God approving polygamy?

The biblical definition of adultery is evidence that God supports polygamy. For this i’ll start another thread because I think this one is about done as it relates to my Genesis 29:30-33 evidence.

New thread:

Where do we find God approving of polygamy? Moral Theology

The meaning of biblical ‘adultery’ is a man that sleeps with another man’s wife. This meaning can be determined based on how the biblical writers understood and judged adultery. You can also determine based on how God judged adultery. Based on this definition we see that it does not restrict a man from taking multiple woman just as long as they don’t belong to another man, whereas a married woman is always a mans’ wife so she’s always stuck to ONE man. This clearly creates unequal terms of …