Apocrypha

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This is the biggest subject for me as a Protestant, The Apocrypha.

What is the history of ‘why’ or ‘why wouldn’t it be’ an inspired book of God?

God Bless.
 
DGM_527 said:
This is the biggest subject for me as a Protestant, The Apocrypha.

What is the history of ‘why’ or ‘why wouldn’t it be’ an inspired book of God?

God Bless.
Click to expand...
Welcome to CAF. 🙂

Here are some articles on the subject that might prove helpful to you:

catholic.com/library/Old_Testament_Canon.asp

catholic.com/thisrock/2000/0009sbs.asp

catholic.com/thisrock/2001/0107fea2.asp

catholic.com/thisrock/1998/9807frs.asp

catholic.com/thisrock/1998/9806fea2.asp

catholic.com/thisrock/2005/0503sbs.asp
 
Hi DGM,

Welcome to the forum.

The Bible that was used by the first Christians was the Greek version called Septuagint. This version contained what you call the apocrypha and what we call Deuterocanonicals. This usage was handed down to us by the apostles and that is why we, and the Orthodox, accept these books as inspired. All Christians did so until the Reformation. The Reformers sukbscrilbed to the Jewish scriptures, which did not accept those books that were extent only in Greek.

Catholic Answers treats this subject extensively at catholic.com/thisrock/2000/0009sbs.asp

Please do not hesitate to ask further questions.

Verbum
 
One of the most convincing points against the Protestant 66-book bible is that at no time in Church history, ever, did the Church make any authoritative statement that the 66-book canon was correct. Whenever the Church made an authoritative statement on the canon (3 times in the 4th and 5th centuries, then again in the 16th), they never supported the 66-book canon.
 
This was honestly was one of the smalest issues for me regarding the Church. There is 2000 years of them being declared cannon, and to be honest, they don’t contain anything theologically that isn’t in the rest of the Bible. When I read them, I wondered what all the fuss was about.
 
DGM_527 said:
This is the biggest subject for me as a Protestant, The Apocrypha.

What is the history of ‘why’ or ‘why wouldn’t it be’ an inspired book of God?

God Bless.
Click to expand...
The deuterocanonical books (what Protestants call the apocrypha) are old testament books that were in the bible up through the 18th century when they were removed. If you look at the original King James bible, you’ll see that they were in there. My question would be why and by what authority did someone in the 18th century remove books that had been in the bible since before the time of Christ?
 
DGM_527 said:
This is the biggest subject for me as a Protestant, The Apocrypha.

What is the history of ‘why’ or ‘why wouldn’t it be’ an inspired book of God?

God Bless.
Click to expand...
This was a big issue for me as well in the beginning. Ultimately, it came down to pure logic and apostolic authority. I asked myself the question, “What came first? The Bible or the Church?” Once we answer this question, we can answer the source of Scriptural authority.

Christ gave authority to men (not Scripture) - “As the Father has sent me, so I send you.” How did the Father send the Son? - With ALL authority in Heaven and earth. Suffice it to say, men were given this authority and it is by this same authority that men were able to declare the Canon of Scripture.

Authority can only come from an equal or greater authority. So if all the Scriptures were not even written by the time of Christ’s ascension, then where did this authority come from? It can only have some from those who were authorized to grant it - otherwise Scriptural authority is a moot point.

God Bless,
CSJ
 
First I think you need to clarify what you mean by Apocrypha.

Do you mean the Deuteroncaon?
Or, do you mean those books rejected from the beginning by the Christian community?
Or, both?
 
Here’s a prophecy of Christ from the book of Wisdom, a deutercanonical book written around 100 BC.

“Let us lie in wait for the righteous man, because he is inconvenient to us and opposes our actions; he reproaches us for sins against the law, and accuses us of sins against our training. He professes to have knowledge of God, and calls himself a child of the Lord. He became to us a reproof of our thoughts; the very sight of him is a burden to us, because his manner of life is unlike that of others, and his ways are strange. We are considered by him as something base, and he avoids our ways as unclean; he calls the last end of the righteous happy, and boasts that God is his father. Let us see if his words are true, and let us test what will happen at the end of his life; for if the righteous man is God’s son, he will help him, and will deliver him from the hand of his adversaries. Let us test him with insult and torture, that we may find out how gentle he is, and make trial of his forbearance. Let us condemn him to a shameful death, for, according to what he says, he will be protected.” Wisdom 2: 12-20
 
Many of the deutercanonical were also “quoted” in the NT. The early councils who determined the canon of the Bible, included these books. It was only in the 16th century that they were “questioned”. It’s interesting that the “reason” that the Jewish councils regected these books were that they weren’t written in Hebrew. (And the reason that the Protestant leaders regected the books!!) Also interesting that when the Dead Sea Scrolls were discovered, these “regected” books were found to be written in …

Hebrew! So maybe those early Christian councils were right after all! (And those councils were Catholic, btw.)
 
DGM_527 said:
This is the biggest subject for me as a Protestant, The Apocrypha.

What is the history of ‘why’ or ‘why wouldn’t it be’ an inspired book of God?
.
Click to expand...
In actuality, what Protestants call the apocrypha (i.e. the deuterocanon) are old testament books that were in the bible from before Christ up through the 18th century. If you look at the original King James bible and any English bibles from before the 18th century, you’ll see that they were in there. My question would be why and by what authority did someone in the 18th century remove books that had been in the bible since before the time of Christ?
 
DGM_527 said:
This is the biggest subject for me as a Protestant, The Apocrypha.

What is the history of ‘why’ or ‘why wouldn’t it be’ an inspired book of God?

God Bless.
Click to expand...
Matt, the Catholic Apologist, has a great series of articles on his apologetics page: the Deuterocanonical page.

One of his best articles is a collation of quotes from the early Fathers showing quotations where they refer to these texts as Scripture.

Another great article dismantles all the typical objections which Protestant polemicists fling against the deuterocanonical books.

By all means, read these articles and gain knowledge. God bless you, and if you have any questions, I’m always happy to answer them.

-Rob
 
CSJ said:
This was a big issue for me as well in the beginning. Ultimately, it came down to pure logic and apostolic authority. I asked myself the question, “What came first? The Bible or the Church?” Once we answer this question, we can answer the source of Scriptural authority.

Christ gave authority to men (not Scripture) - “As the Father has sent me, so I send you.” How did the Father send the Son? - With ALL authority in Heaven and earth. Suffice it to say, men were given this authority and it is by this same authority that men were able to declare the Canon of Scripture.

Authority can only come from an equal or greater authority. So if all the Scriptures were not even written by the time of Christ’s ascension, then where did this authority come from? It can only have some from those who were authorized to grant it - otherwise Scriptural authority is a moot point.

God Bless,
CSJ
Click to expand...
Everyones’ comments and advice were appreciated, they were all very helpful.

I would however like to thank you for this comment in particular. This was very helpful, and a very good point. 🙂

I will continue to post on this subject if I have questions or comments back as I go through links and comments.
 
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