S
se_goat
Guest
I was perusing the “Fathers Know Best” section of CA, and felt compelled to ask the question -
You can look at the “proofs” for various Marian doctrines originating in the Protoevangelium of James.
Too bad, the Protoevangelium is pseudopigrapha, and its authorship is faked.
You can look it up on wikipedia.
So my question is, why do catholics use these documents as proofs when they are clearly written centuries later and clearly apocryphal?
You can look at the “proofs” for various Marian doctrines originating in the Protoevangelium of James.
Too bad, the Protoevangelium is pseudopigrapha, and its authorship is faked.
You can look it up on wikipedia.
So my question is, why do catholics use these documents as proofs when they are clearly written centuries later and clearly apocryphal?