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Daniel_Marsh
Guest
Hi Bene, once we reach heaven, can we sin?
The issue is not sinning, but when any creature is finally in the presence of God will any creature possess incommunicable, divine attributes such as omnipotence, omniscience or omnipresence?Hi Bene, once we reach heaven, can we sin?
This was well stated – thank you rjs1I suspect that the quotes from the saints mentioned were talking about Mary’s loving intercessory role in Heaven and using the word “command” in the sense we might use the expression “Your wish is my command.” Of course God cannot be commanded by anybody and nor would the humble maid of the Magnificat ever consider trying to command God.
Scylla, you make an excellent point. But you do realize that the origin of the teaching of Mary being assumed (bodily) into heaven and now reigning there as “Queen Mother” is not Scriptural, but the mind of mere men? Right? Oh one can appeal to Solomon elevating his mother to that position, but nothing of the sort is ever taught in Scripture about Jesus and Mary. It’s simply the assertion of men, non-Apostolic and totally absent of any divine source. It’s all “strawmen” anyway.Why are you even discussing comments Saints have made. They are not infallible, and must be understood within the context of the Churches understanding of the faith.
This must be stressed or else once you resolve this discussion they have now have an understanding it is ok to take every comment made by Catholics from the Pope to everyday dissenters and use that to attack the true faith.
If they do think a comment places Mary above God then tell them that Catholic understanding of the faith never places Mary above God. We must defend what Catholicism really is and not get distracted with strawmen.
God Bless
Scylla
There was no absolute necessity for Jesus to be born of a woman; Jesus said, “… for I tell you, God is able from these stones to raise up children to Abraham.” (Luke 3:8) Mary was the mother of Jesus because God wanted not only a man but also the full and active participation of a woman in the redemption of mankind. Mankind fell through the sin of both a man and a woman, Adam and Eve, and God wanted to restore Mankind in a similar manner through the obedience of a man and a woman, Jesus and Mary. Not that Jesus and Mary are equals, by any means. Jesus is God and human, whereas Mary is only human. Nevertheless, each in their own way contributed to the redemption of Mankind and each deserve to be recognized for their contributions. See Justin Martyr and Irenaeus of Lyon for second-century Christian treatments of Mary as Eve’s antithesis.Mary was the mother of Jesus because the Son was to be *born *into this world that a Man might redeem humanity from the eternal consequences of sin.
It is not a pagan concept. The Lord predicted this mother-Son duo in the Sacred Scriptures:15I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel." (Genesis 3:15) (note: the woman and her seed)But Scripture gives absolutely no indication that He also came into this world to obtain “a mother” to exalt and bring back to Heaven to reign with Him and give dominion. True Christianity is not a Mother-Son religion. This is a pagan concept.
Bene, you are better than this. At least try to see it from the Catholic perspective. The “strawmen” argument is not on the Catholic side here. You know full well that Catholics teach that divine revelation comes to us both “orally” and “written” (2 Thess 2:15). It is dishonest to claim, as you have, that Catholics simply follow “the assertion of men”. Now, if you want to argue sola scriptura, or authority, start another thread. But, this post is a red herring, and completely unfair. Besides, Paul states VERY CLEARLY, “13And we also thank God continually because, when you received the word of God, which you heard from us, you accepted it not as the word of men, but as it actually is, the word of God, which is at work in you who believe.” He ain’t talking about Scripture there buddy. So, Catholics relying on the Big “T” Tradition of the Church (i.e.Apostolic Tradition) to interpret what is at the very least implicitly revealed to us in Scripture, is not groundless. Whether you agree is a different story, but don’t act like Catholics don’t have a response to your baseless accusations.Scylla, you make an excellent point. But you do realize that the origin of the teaching of Mary being assumed (bodily) into heaven and now reigning there as “Queen Mother” is not Scriptural, but the mind of mere men? Right? Oh one can appeal to Solomon elevating his mother to that position, but nothing of the sort is ever taught in Scripture about Jesus and Mary. It’s simply the assertion of men, non-Apostolic and totally absent of any divine source. It’s all “strawmen” anyway.
Blessings,
Bene
For the sake of argument, to petition someone who IS omnipotent does not then make the petitioner omnipotent - no matter how many petitions are granted. *Omnipotence * is an attribute which NO creature possesses.Logical reasoning can make the leap of saying Mary is omnipotent fairly easily:
- God is omnipotent – anything He desires or wills will come to be.
- Jesus is God
- Jesus cannot sin
- Jesus must obey His mother (or that would be sin). Better positively stated: He answers her requests because He loves her so completely.
- Therefore, anything Mark asks of Jesus will be granted. Since Jesus can do anything, Mary can therefore have anything she requests come to be, through her Son’s power.
- The best word to describe someone whom anything they wish for/ask for is granted is “omnipotent”.
Catholicism teaches that Mary’s will is completely one with God’s, as all or our’s will be in Heaven. Thus, what petitions Mary requests, GOD grants. This is not out of necessity for God, but out of His manifest will.For the sake of argument, to petition someone who IS omnipotent does not then make the petitioner omnipotent - no matter how many petitions are granted. *Omnipotence *is an attribute which NO creature possesses.
Javelin, does Catholicism teach you that Mary herself fulfills the prayer request, or God?
Blessings,
Bene
This is a question that needed to be addressed and as the Church Jesus Christ established the Church needed to address this belief.Scylla, you make an excellent point. But you do realize that the origin of the teaching of Mary being assumed (bodily) into heaven and now reigning there as “Queen Mother” is not Scriptural, but the mind of mere men? Right? Oh one can appeal to Solomon elevating his mother to that position, but nothing of the sort is ever taught in Scripture about Jesus and Mary. It’s simply the assertion of men, non-Apostolic and totally absent of any divine source. It’s all “strawmen” anyway.
Blessings,
Bene
First of all it wasn’t Jesus who said it, it was John the Baptist. Second, it was not said in the context of redemption. What you stated was not only inaccurate contextually but theologically/soteriologically. John said it in the context of refuting their misguided confidence in their ancestral connection to Abraham, not as another way of divine redemption. In fact, what you’re saying renders the cross as simply an arbitrary way of divine salvation (just one of many other ways God could have chosen). And that the infinite holiness of God, which was offended/violated by man’s sin, need not have been propitiated (legally satisfied), which is what the shed blood of Christ on the cross accomplished (Rom. 3:25; cf. Heb. 9:22).There was no absolute necessity for Jesus to be born of a woman; Jesus said, “… for I tell you, God is able from these stones to raise up children to Abraham.” (Luke 3:8)
What you state here as to what “God wanted” is only a matter of personal opinion. In truth, however, Scripture itself does not confirm your asserted opinion. In Romans chapter five it is recorded by Paul, under the divine inspiration of the Holy Spirit, that “through one man” (not one man and one woman) “sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned” (i.e., in Adam, Romans 5:12-21). In these verses two Representative men, Adam and Christ, are contrasted: Condemnation and Death by Adam to all men in him; Justification and Life by Christ to all men in Him.Mary was the mother of Jesus because God wanted not only a man but also the full and active participation of a woman in the redemption of mankind. Mankind fell through the sin of both a man and a woman, Adam and Eve, and God wanted to restore Mankind in a similar manner through the obedience of a man and a woman, Jesus and Mary.
I know about their typological antithesis but none say their teachings were actually taught and passed down from the Apostles, i.e., “Apostolic oral tradition.” Even Catholic “tradition” must be Apostolic. So in order to build doctrine on those writings one would have to treat them as sacred Scripture, or consider the writers infallible. I don’t think Catholicism recognizes either one.See Justin Martyr and Irenaeus of Lyon for second-century Christian treatments of Mary as Eve’s antithesis.
This is a prophecy of the eventual virgin birth and the ultimate triumph of Messiah over Satan and His work of redemption through His death and shed blood on the cross. Not the formation of a Mother-Son religion. None of the other Scriptures you present speak of the development of a Mother-Son religion either.It is not a pagan concept. The Lord predicted this mother-Son duo in the Sacred Scriptures:Gen. 3:15
If you read the text carefully you’ll see that John saw a great “sign in heaven.” It wasn’t the woman herself who was in heaven. In fact, it is the Son to whom she gives birth (not the woman) that is caught up to God and to His throne. The woman doesn’t follow Him into heaven but instead flees to the wilderness where she’s nourished by God for three and a half years (this scene is earthly, not heavenly). Based on an O.T. description found in Joseph’s dream, the woman is not Mary but national Israel. Jacob himself understood this description as meaning himself and his family, the progenitors of national Israel (see Gen. 37:9-11). It all fits in perfectly with the O.T. prophecies which speak of the persecution of Israel during the last half of the 70th week of Daniel (the dreaded “Day of the Lord”), the Tribulation period which is yet future. Jesus Himself makes reference to this future time of persecution for national Israel in Matt. 24:15-21.Who is this woman uniquely exalted in heaven?
Actually, I believe Catholicism teaches that “tradition” must be Apostolic, that is, teachings orally taught by the Apostles but were not written. The Catholic Marian doctrines were formed after the Apostolic age, most long afterwards, and I have yet to see any kind of proof that these were actual teachings handed down straight from the Apostles.Bene, you are better than this. At least try to see it from the Catholic perspective. The “strawmen” argument is not on the Catholic side here. You know full well that Catholics teach that divine revelation comes to us both “orally” and “written” (2 Thess 2:15). It is dishonest to claim, as you have, that Catholics simply follow “the assertion of men”.
Proof? But just for the sake of argument, because a “saint’s” will is in accordance with God’s, does that render the saint him/herself omnipotent? Does he/she now possess the divine attribute of omnipotence? Does the saint (Mary) answer the prayer, or does God?Catholicism teaches that Mary’s will is completely one with God’s, as all or our’s will be in Heaven. Thus, what petitions Mary requests, GOD grants. This is not out of necessity for God, but out of His manifest will.