C
catholictiger
Guest
alright so I’m in this debate right now were this guy claims that Saint Thomas Aquinas believes that we are justified by faith alone and I’m sure saved as well
he quotes these things from the summa
first he asks how can someone obtain eternal happiness? answer: Through Grace.
If he didn’t are there some quotes by Aquinas which show this.
also is there a way he can be eye to eye with church teaching and believe in justification by faith alone?
note: I put this in the philosophy forum becuase I am asking a question on Aquinas not the scriptures. If this is the wrong place for it please move it.
he quotes these things from the summa
first he asks how can someone obtain eternal happiness? answer: Through Grace.
next he claims Two kinds of grace: grace in general and sanctifying grace (the grace which gives faith, through which you are justified)Acts conducing to an end must be proportioned to the end. But no act exceeds the proportion of its active principle; and hence we see in natural things, that nothing can by its operation bring about an effect which exceeds its active force, but only such as is proportionate to its power. Now everlasting life is an end exceeding the proportion of human nature, as is clear from what we have said above (Question 5, Article 5). Hence man, by his natural endowments, cannot produce meritorious works proportionate to everlasting life; and for this a higher force is needed, viz. the force of grace. And thus without grace man cannot merit everlasting life; yet he can perform works conducing to a good which is natural to man, as “to toil in the fields, to drink, to eat, or to have friends,” and the like, as Augustine says in his third Reply to the Pelagians [Hypognosticon iii, among the spurious works of St. Augustine].
the he poses another question: what does sanctifying grace do? Answer: it gives you faith. Through faith alone you are saved.And thus there is a twofold grace: one whereby man himself is united to God, and this is called “sanctifying grace”; the other is that whereby one man cooperates with another in leading him to God, and this gift is called “gratuitous grace,” since it is bestowed on a man beyond the capability of nature, and beyond the merit of the person. But whereas it is bestowed on a man, not to justify him, but rather that he may cooperate in the justification of another, it is not called sanctifying grace. And it is of this that the Apostle says (1 Corinthians 12:7): “And the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man unto utility,” i.e. of others.
On the contrary, It is written (Ephesians 2:8-9): “By grace you are saved through faith, and that not of yourselves . . . that no man may glory . . . for it is the gift of God.”
I answer that, Two things are requisite for faith. First, that the things which are of faith should be proposed to man: this is necessary in order that man believe anything explicitly. The second thing requisite for faith is the assent of the believer to the things which are proposed to him. Accordingly, as regards the first of these, faith must needs be from God. Because those things which are of faith surpass human reason, hence they do not come to man’s knowledge, unless God reveal them. To some, indeed, they are revealed by God immediately, as those things which were revealed to the apostles and prophets, while to some they are proposed by God in sending preachers of the faith, according to Romans 10:15: “How shall they preach, unless they be sent?”
As regards the second, viz. man’s assent to the things which are of faith, we may observe a twofold cause, one of external inducement, such as seeing a miracle, or being persuaded by someone to embrace the faith: neither of which is a sufficient cause, since of those who see the same miracle, or who hear the same sermon, some believe, and some do not. Hence we must assert another internal cause, which moves man inwardly to assent to matters of faith.
so is he correct did Aquinas preach faith alone? I think if he did it would be considered heresy by the church correct?The Pelagians held that this cause was nothing else than man’s free-will: and consequently they said that the beginning of faith is from ourselves, inasmuch as, to wit, it is in our power to be ready to assent to things which are of faith, but that the consummation of faith is from God, Who proposes to us the things we have to believe. But this is false, for, since man, by assenting to matters of faith, is raised above his nature, this must needs accrue to him from some supernatural principle moving him inwardly; and this is God. Therefore faith, as regards the assent which is the chief act of faith, is from God moving man inwardly by grace.
If he didn’t are there some quotes by Aquinas which show this.
also is there a way he can be eye to eye with church teaching and believe in justification by faith alone?
note: I put this in the philosophy forum becuase I am asking a question on Aquinas not the scriptures. If this is the wrong place for it please move it.