MindOverMatter,
No there isn’t. There is always a “potentially infinite” number of events in the future. To say that time can be completed, in the sense of saying that there is an ultimate number, is meaningless to me.
A potential infinity would mean that something might have boundaries or it might not. Being actually infinite is a quality of a thing, and means it has no boundaries in a certain aspect. If we know for certain that time will not end, then we know it has no final boundary, and is therefore actually infinite, since infinity is a quality of a thing. If we said that time were merely potentially infinite instead of actually infinite, then there woudl exist the possibility of its ending.
I don’t know that eternal life will have anything to do with time. However, even if there is an eternal future, it is not an actual infinite; rather it will simply go on for ever and ever.
Even the existence of matter in Heaven, we can know with certainty that there is time in the afterlife. The fact that eternal life is in time and does not end, means it has no end boundary and is hence an actually infinite thing. It does not potentially have this quality, it actually has the quality.
First of all, you implied in your first post that my arguments were not sufficient in providing a first cause by complaining that atheists can simply say that the world is eternal. Perhaps, i misunderstood, perhaps you were playing; i don’t know. It seems to me that you assumed that i was trying to prove that the universe was not infinite perhaps? Secondly; I’m not sure in what sense Thomas did hold to your position. He certainly seemed to deny mechanical infinites, for the simple fact that he argued for a “sufficient cause”. For instance, the act of knowing cannot infinitely regress; otherwise an infinite number of processes would have to be completed before you ever knew anything. Hence, so far as logical necessity will allow, there are only a finite number of processes before we reach the “knower”. As for non-mechanical infinites, Thomas knew of no arguments that could refute it. That doesn’t mean that the concept of an infinite universe is irrefutable. In any case, it seems to me, if i am not mistaken, that Thomas rejected an eternal universe on the basis of faith.
St. Thomas doesn’t believe an infinite chain of causes is ultimately possible, but he does think that one cause can cause an entire system of infinite causes
in time. Causality for Thomas is not chronological, but ultimately exists outside of time, and as such does not need to entire a temporal chain of causes at any given point, but can merely cause the whole from without. In this manner, he thinks it could have been possible for God to create an eternal universe which had no beginning in time, yet still requires an outside First Cause.
Certainly in regards to how God chose to create this universe, He created it with a beginning in time. Thus, indeed St. Thomas rejects the idea that this universe is truly eternal on the grounds of faith (in that it needed to be revealed to know with certainty).
Since Atheists do not accept our basis in revelation, however, I don’t think it possible to disprove an eternal universe, and hence it needs to be clear that St. Thomas’s proof does not require a temporal beginning in order to be valid. The proof would not logically work for an atheist if it is tied to a notion of a first cause
in time. It seemed to me that the arguments that had been presenting were tying the two together, hence the reason for my objection.