Aquinas, the Five Ways, Infinite Regress, and Aristotle

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Well, I’m not going to get into an endless debate on the subject. You either see it or you don’t. Do get the book I suggested, it is a good read and is written by someone who understands the subject much better than anyone here.

I would point out however that # 4 does not happen unless there is a first uncaused cause. That " events " do occur is proof that there is a first uncaused cause which sets all instrumental cause in motion/change/existence right now. You understand of course that this has absolutely nothing to do with either the finitne or the eternal existence of the universe ? The fact is that even if the universe were eternal ( which I deny ) there would still have to be a first uncaused cause for each and every change/movement and there would have to be a cause for the existence of the universe. Good luck. 👍
I understand the argument just fine, it’s just I see the argument as making too many assumptions about understanding infinities by extrapolating properties that clearly don’t apply from the behavior of finite things.

That does sound like a good book to get though. I’ll put it on my reading list.
 
I understand the argument just fine, it’s just I see the argument as making too many assumptions about understanding infinities by extrapolating properties that clearly don’t apply from the behavior of finite things.

That does sound like a good book to get though. I’ll put it on my reading list.
That’s O.K., you don’t have to agree. But do read that book. 👍
 
it’s just I see the argument as making too many assumptions about understanding infinities by extrapolating properties that clearly don’t apply from the behavior of finite things.
There are no real infinities, so there are no assumptions about infinities to make.

Mathematical expressions of infinity do not describe anything real.

It’s all very simple.
No event could have happened an infinite time ago.

( now I suppose somebody will start talking about “non-linear time”. 🤷 )
 
There are no real infinities, so there are no assumptions about infinities to make.

Mathematical expressions of infinity do not describe anything real.

It’s all very simple.
No event could have happened an infinite time ago.

( now I suppose somebody will start talking about “non-linear time”. 🤷 )
We need to be careful when engaging in discussion of real infinities and how they are applicable in the case of space and time. If we assume that the same rules apply we get all sorts of strange conclusions, the most famous of which are the paradoxes of Zeno.

I think there is actually a good counterexample to the idea that you can’t have real infinities with space and time. Considering the space example, is it impossible for space to extend infinitely? Is that not a real infinity? It is an unsolved question in physics as to what actually the shape of the universe is, but if the prohibition of real infinities applies to space just as it does to things, then it is impossible for space to extend infinitely.

And more specifically relating to time, if real infinities cannot exist for time, then that means it is impossible for time to extend infinitely into the future as well.

Also, isn’t God a real infinity?

And an infinite regress doesn’t mean that some event happened an infinite time ago. The concept of elapsed time doesn’t apply. Infinite simply means unbounded. In other words, an infinite regress means that there is no boundary on how far you can go back, not that some event happened an infinite time ago.
 
think there is actually a good counterexample to the idea that you can’t have real infinities with space and time. Considering the space example, is it impossible for space to extend infinitely? Is that not a real infinity?
No. Scientists say matter creates space. “Where” there is no matter there is no space. so space is limited. There is no “outside” the limits of the universe.
if the prohibition of real infinities applies to space just as it does to things, then it is impossible for space to extend infinitely.
The prohibition of real infinites applies to space just as it does to things for the reason I just gave.
And more specifically relating to time, if real infinities cannot exist for time, then that means it is impossible for time to extend infinitely into the future as well.
Time will extend into the future without end, but never reach infinity. Wouldn’t it stop at infinity? But no, infinity is not a real number
Also, isn’t God a real infinity?
Anything that can be counted, divided, or measured can’t be infinite, but none of these things applies to God.
And an infinite regress doesn’t mean that some event happened an infinite time ago. The concept of elapsed time doesn’t apply. Infinite simply means unbounded. In other words, an infinite regress means that there is no boundary on how far you can go back, not that some event happened an infinite time ago.
“Infinite simply means unbounded” in mathematics, but in the real world there is a boundary to everything, even to space, “beyond” which there “is” nothing because there is no “beyond” and not even a nothing to “is”.😃 As we say up here-ah in Maine, ‘You can’t get there from here.’
 
.

It’s all very simple.
No event could have happened an infinite time ago.

( now I suppose somebody will start talking about “non-linear time”. 🤷 )
Exactly.
But an infinte regress does not mean theer is an event that happened an infinite time ago. It does not mean that regress itself began an infinite time ago, it means that talking about the "beginning’ of an infinirte regress is meaningless.
So, even if time is past infinite, there is no moment of time that is infinitely long ago. The time between any two moments in time is always finite.
 
I knew the A-team would come around sooner or later.

Can anybody figure out what this is about? 🤷
Exactly.
But an infinte regress does not mean theer is an event that happened an infinite time ago. It does not mean that regress itself began an infinite time ago, it means that talking about the "beginning’ of an infinirte regress is meaningless.
So, even if time is past infinite, there is no moment of time that is infinitely long ago. The time between any two moments in time is always finite.
Notice that he throws this into the middle:
does not mean that regress itself began an infinite time ago
Well of course if there was an infinite time ago there was no beginning. So by making this common sense statement he tries to make it look like the entire quote is legitimate.
 
No. Scientists say matter creates space. “Where” there is no matter there is no space. so space is limited. There is no “outside” the limits of the universe.
There is nothing in science that I know of that says that matter creates space. You may be referencing general relativity which says that the presence of matter and energy makes space-time curve, but it doesn’t say anything as to matter creating space.
Time will extend into the future without end, but never reach infinity. Wouldn’t it stop at infinity? But no, infinity is not a real number
That’s the definition of infinity. When we say that something is infinite, what we mean to say is that you can’t draw some line and say “this quantity is less than this line” no matter where you put the line, because there will always be something further than that line. In other words, when we say something is infinite, that means that it has no boundary.

This isn’t just the mathematical meaning of the word infinite; that’s what the word originally meant. The word infinity ultimately comes from the Latin word Infinitus, which literally means “not bounded” or “having no end”

If, like you say, “Time will extend into the future without end…” then by definition, time is infinite, as it has no boundary in the future.
“Infinite simply means unbounded” in mathematics, but in the real world there is a boundary to everything, even to space, “beyond” which there “is” nothing because there is no “beyond” and not even a nothing to “is”.😃 As we say up here-ah in Maine, ‘You can’t get there from here.’
There is a boundary to space? I’m fairly certain this issue is an unsolved question in physics. If a boundary has been demonstrated, I would be very much interested in seeing the research.
 
There is nothing in science that I know of that says that matter creates space.
I’ve heard it said by scientists on the educational channels, Discovery and/or History. Sorry I can’t give a reference.
Space is not empty space. There is something there, call it “energy” or whatever you want. Apparently space is only where matter is or close by. So there is nothing outside the universe, not even an “outside”.
You may be referencing general relativity which says that the presence of matter and energy makes space-time curve, but it doesn’t say anything as to matter creating space.
When you move, you have to go where space is.
Why does a satellite orbit the Earth? Because is follows the curvature of space.
You can’t go outside the universe because at some point the curvature of space forces you back. This is the boundary.
Sure, as the universe expands this boundary keeps getting pushed further out, but that’s not infinity.
If, like you say, “Time will extend into the future without end…” then by definition, time is infinite, as it has no boundary in the future.
I’m rather surprised to read that. “without end” means it will always continue to extend, but not that if will ever reach infinity, which is not a real number and not reality. There will always be a boundary ( of the amount of time that has elapsed ) at any moment in the future.

==============================

In any case,

there is no such thing as an infinite anything, except God who is supremely One.
All the semantics of the A-team or anybody else can’t change that.
 
I’ve heard it said by scientists on the educational channels, Discovery and/or History. Sorry I can’t give a reference.
Space is not empty space. There is something there, call it “energy” or whatever you want. Apparently space is only where matter is or close by. So there is nothing outside the universe, not even an “outside”.
It is true that zero point energy exists even in seemingly empty space, but this energy isn’t somehow creating the space. This energy is present due to the fact that energy levels are subject to the Heisenburg uncertainty principle, and so the energy level of something cannot be exactly zero, since that would mean its momentum and position are both known, which the Heisenburg uncertainty principle doesn’t allow, so the energy level of even a vacuum can’t be absolutely zero.

This is why there is some energy in empty space, but there is nothing to suggest this energy somehow “creates” the space. It just so happens that there is space and due to the uncertainty principle, some energy must be present.

Were it not for the space, this energy would not be there, so if the energy creates the space, then we have a causal loop of energy creating space which allows for the energy which creates the space… and so on. If this setup of a causal loop is actually possible, then it refutes the cosmological argument, because if causal loops are allowed, then that means you can have a causal chain of events without a beginning. In fact, if this setup of a causal loop is possible, that could provide an alternate reason for the big bang in which the energy of the universe makes the universes’ space possible, and the space makes the energy possible.

Maybe it is true that energy and matter create space, but if that is true, then you end up with a causal loop, and in order for the cosmological argument to work, then causal loops need to be impossible.
When you move, you have to go where space is.
Why does a satellite orbit the Earth? Because is follows the curvature of space.
You can’t go outside the universe because at some point the curvature of space forces you back. This is the boundary.
Sure, as the universe expands this boundary keeps getting pushed further out, but that’s not infinity.
What I mean by boundary is if you were to pick an arbitrary direction and go in that direction, would you be able to continue indefinitely, getting farther and farther away from your starting point or no? If this is possible, then there is no boundary in the dimensions of this universe, and space extends infinitely in that particular direction. I’m not saying this setup is true, but I do think that this scenario isn’t contrary to logic, and if it isn’t contrary to logic, then it seems that we have a real infinity of distance, which means that the prohibition of real infinities doesn’t apply to space, and since space and time are connected and described with the same set of equations in relativity and are affected by acceleration and gravity in the same way, it seems reasonable to say that if the prohibition of real infinities doesn’t apply to space, then it shouldn’t apply to time, either.
I’m rather surprised to read that. “without end” means it will always continue to extend, but not that if will ever reach infinity, which is not a real number and not reality. There will always be a boundary ( of the amount of time that has elapsed ) at any moment in the future.
I never said that it would reach infinity. I’m not the one treating infinity like a number. You’re equivocating on the meaning of boundary. When we are talking about the past, you insist there must be a beginning. If there is such a beginning, then time has a boundary in the past because you can’t go beyond that boundary. That beginning is a limit that you can point to and say “you can’t go any earlier than this point” That’s what we mean by boundary.

You bring up the matter of time being bounded at any given time by the present moment. I admit that in a sense, this is a sort of boundary, but it isn’t the sort of boundary that we are talking about. When we ask ourselves whether a particular thing or quantity is infinite or not, we answer by looking at whether or not we can pick a boundary line which that particular thing or quantity cannot go beyond. If such a boundary exists, then it isn’t infinite. If such a boundary doesn’t exist, then the thing we are talking about is infinite.

The boundary you propose for time isn’t that kind of boundary. Time can move past the present moment. If it couldn’t, then how can there be a next moment? You say that the boundary is always moving, but you can’t count it as a boundary if you have to move it. If you are allowed to move the boundary, then what is the point even trying to see if there is one? In the context of looking at whether something is or isn’t infinite, allowing moving boundaries renders the whole question meaningless.
 
I knew the A-team would come around sooner or later.

Can anybody figure out what this is about? 🤷

Notice that he throws this into the middle:

Well of course if there was an infinite time ago there was no beginning. So by making this common sense statement he tries to make it look like the entire quote is legitimate.
You guys seem to be thinking of an " infinite regress " as an endless string of events taking place in to an infinite past and into an infinite future in respect to Thomas’ Five Ways. You must keep in mind that for the Five Ways Thoma assumed ( for the sake of argument) an eternally existing universe. But even an eternally existing universe requires a First Unmoved Unmoveable Cause to account for all movement/change/existence. This Cause operates " here and now, " simultaneously with every movement/change taking place this very moment throughout the universe.

And this is true for all the movement/changes that took place a moment ago, and the moment before, ad infinitum. So the " infinite regress " Thomas is denying possibe is one that must be considered " vertically, " so to speak, or " right now. "

Thomas does not deny the possibility of an infinite regress of connected events into the past or future. But once an event past its causal relationship to the "now " is over. He often poses the example of generational relationships in families. I am descended from a long line of progenitors. But they are all deceased, so their past existence has no causal relationship to me here and now. My only causal relationship, here and now, is with God who sustains my existence here and now and is the primary cause, here and now, for all my bodily and spiritual activities ( internal and external). This, vertical, causality cannot be an infinite regress. 👍

P.S. I don’t think there is an " A " team here. Obviously, we admire the intellectual accumen of some who show up. That does not put them on the Philosophical " A " team. 👍
 
You guys seem to be thinking of an " infinite regress " as an endless string of events taking place in to an infinite past and into an infinite future in respect to Thomas’ Five Ways. You must keep in mind that for the Five Ways Thoma assumed ( for the sake of argument) an eternally existing universe. But even an eternally existing universe requires a First Unmoved Unmoveable Cause to account for all movement/change/existence. This Cause operates " here and now, " simultaneously with every movement/change taking place this very moment throughout the universe.

And this is true for all the movement/changes that took place a moment ago, and the moment before, ad infinitum. So the " infinite regress " Thomas is denying possibe is one that must be considered " vertically, " so to speak, or " right now. "
That’s an important point that alot of people miss. It is called the distinction between causation In Fieri which causes something and then doesn’t need to be around any more, and causation In Esse, in which the cause needs to remain for the effect to still be there, the classic example of which is how a candle is the cause of its flame. If the candle is taken away, the flame goes away too. In his argument from causation, Aquinas is talking about causation In Esse

I’m just confused on one point here. You say:
But even an eternally existing universe requires a First Unmoved Unmoveable Cause to account for all movement/change/existence.
But if the universe is eternal, then why is such a cause called first? Is it just a naming convention or is it due to some technical reason?
 
You must keep in mind that for the Five Ways Thoma assumed ( for the sake of argument) an eternally existing universe.
He did not.

It is often claimed that Aquinas thought an eternal world was possible. This is an incorrect understanding of his article on the eternity of the world:
theologywebsite.com/etext/aquinas/eternityofworld.shtml

Go down to the third from last paragraph where he finally speaks clearly.
For, if “eternal” be understood in this sense, nothing can in any way be coeternal with God, for nothing but God is immutable.
and
Likewise, Augustine says (VIII Super Genesis ad Litteram cap. 23), “Since the nature of the Trinity is wholly unchangeable, it is eternal in such a way that nothing can be coeternal with it,”
Aquinas didn’t do a great writing job with this article, but I don’t blame him for that.
Try writing as much as he did, with nothing but pen and ink, by the time he died at age fifty. He holds the world record for writing good stuff. Let’s not confuse anything he wrote because he had no editing tools like we do today.
 
UPDATE;
I just re-read the Five Ways:
Summa Theologica Question 2 Article 3: Does God Exist?
newadvent.org/summa/1002.htm#article3

There is not a word in it supporting an eternal world, **not even for the sake of argument. **

So why was it said above that he assumed an eternal world for the sake of argument?

🍿
 
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