Aquinas's First Way

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Blue,

Angels certainly do move. Scripture is full of the movement of Angels. Abraham was visited by three angels. Their sudden appearance indicates movement. Then again they told Abraham that they were going to go to Sodom to see if the things they heard were true. Again, Jacob wrestled with an angel all night and then the angel departed after blessing Jacob. Again, angels came and ministered to Our Lord in Gethsimini.

Aquinas talks about the movement of angels in S.T., part 1, ques 53.

It is not something we are required to believe but it is nonetheless true.

Linus2nd
 
Blue,

Angels certainly do move. Scripture is full of the movement of Angels. Abraham was visited by three angels. Their sudden appearance indicates movement. Then again they told Abraham that they were going to go to Sodom to see if the things they heard were true. Again, Jacob wrestled with an angel all night and then the angel departed after blessing Jacob. Again, angels came and ministered to Our Lord in Gethsimini.

Aquinas talks about the movement of angels in S.T., part 1, ques 53.

It is not something we are required to believe but it is nonetheless true.

Linus2nd
Yes, we could also add that Jesus cast out many demons from possessed people. Take, for example, the healing of the man possessed by “legion” in the territory of the Gerasenes (Luke 8: 26-38). The demons pleaded with Jesus not to order them to depart to the abyss and they pleaded with him to allow them to enter into a herd of swine which Jesus allowed them to do. So the demons came out of the man and entered the herd of swine.

God is the only Being who is everywhere, for his being is infinite, boundless, measureless. Creatures have a finite being. Angels are in place not by being contained by it as bodies are but as containing the place just as our spiritual souls are not contained by the body but as containing the body.
 
Yes, we could also add that Jesus cast out many demons from possessed people. Take, for example, the healing of the man possessed by “legion” in the territory of the Gerasenes (Luke 8: 26-38). The demons pleaded with Jesus not to order them to depart to the abyss and they pleaded with him to allow them to enter into a herd of swine which Jesus allowed them to do. So the demons came out of the man and entered the herd of swine.

God is the only Being who is everywhere, for his being is infinite, boundless, measureless. Creatures have a finite being. Angels are in place not by being contained by it as bodies are but as containing the place just as our spiritual souls are not contained by the body but as containing the body.
Correct. Even the demons move.

Linus2nd
 
I don’t know if you are still interested…
Sorry, I was planning on responding earlier but then got sidetracked with other things. Now then…
I have come to the conclusion that Aristotle in fact defines “substance” in at least 3 or 4 different ways depending on topic. I believe modern Physics has shown better than before that they are not in fact consistant with each other…and that even the definition he seems to use wrt just pure substances is weak because his principle that matter is infinitely divisible is mistaken.
Can you list what these definitions are? I have not read Aristotle directly so all I know is how modern proponents of the “Aristotelian/Thomist tradition” define substance, which is the definition I have been attempting to defend in this thread.
As a professional in Chemistry I would be interested in your observations which lead you to say this…?
Well I wouldn’t call myself a “professional”, at least not yet :p. Anyway, the point I was making was a metaphysical one and not a scientific one. I will attempt to illustrate the point with the figure attached to the bottom of this post. In Fig. A you define the individual atoms as substances, so you have 2 hydrogen substances and 1 oxygen substance. In Fig. B you define the H2O as the substance, so you have 1 blue H2O substance. In Fig. C, you attempt to define both the atoms and the H2O as substances, but then you have two substances occupying the same matter, since the oxygen atom is both an oxygen substance and an H2O substance (signified by the blended colors). So you either have to accept that the atoms are the substances and H2O’s properties are purely accidental, or you have to accept that H2O is the substance and the atoms are virtually present.

Keep in mind that, for the Thomist at least, the substantial form is part of what makes the thing in question actually exist. Without substantial form, you just have pure potency, which is not a thing at all. So you can’t have two substantial forms on the same matter since you would be causing the thing in question to exist twice over.
I do not quite understand why you say the ions are only present virtually. If there is a dynamic equilibrium then there is constant change. Change is the movement from potency to act. So ions (and water molecules) are both actually and potentially present in what we call “water”. Of course not the same particle at the same time - its a law of averages. And its the very nature of “water” to do so.
But you were defining water as the “dynamic equilibrium of H2O, H+, OH-, and other related molecules/ions.” That equilibrium is the unifying form of all the underlying parts, making them really water, so the properties of all those individual parts are present only virtually in the equilibrium since the equilibrium is what is defining the water substance using the above definition. If the underlying molecules and ions are substances as well, then they are counted twice for the same reason given with the figure. If the molecules and ions are the real substances, then the equilibrium is only accidental.
 
Can you quote where I said that - I don’t think I should have said it if I did.
It’s been a while, so I don’t remember exactly what I was thinking when I wrote that. The best explanation I can come up with is that I goofed and meant to say that “earlier you said that water is a mixture” (no “not”) and then when you said “water is in a dynamic equilibrium between the above components” I interpreted you as identifying water as H2O since you said that it is “in equilibrium between the above components” and H2O would be the molecule in equilibrium with the ions. Whatever the case is, I probably just didn’t proofread well enough because I was in a hurry. I will attempt to refrain from using water as a synonym for H2O, since it is introducing confusion.
The trouble is Aristotle seems to use “mixture” in a variety of ways that are of extreme significance for a Chemist. Sometimes he means a loose aggregated mixture of two or more substances. Sometimes he seems to mean a compound composed of two initial constituents which after “mixing” (ie reaction) are infinitely divisible and are therefore become a pure substance.

Not quite sure why you might think we don’t know. Its pretty clear to me when we look at Aristotle’s texts on the different types of “mixtures” that he never considered what we now know as the covalent bond model…where two different substances in fact have interpenetrating electron clouds and can share parts…and become a stable compound with qualities different from both constituents.
Well I think you will have to provide quotes from Aristotle so we can more accurately discuss what his views were. As I said before, I haven’t not read him directly and I doubt too many of the lurking readers have either.
And we can see why he never went down this path…because he believes pure substances are infinitely divisible. Clearly covalent bond models of reality show us how a pure substance (eg a compound) is in fact not infinitely divisible. If we “cut” between the two nuclei of a compound then the compound breaks down into its constituent elemental substances. This cutting is effectively exactly what electrolysis or ionisation does.

So I am pretty confident Aristotle not only did not think of this type of “mixture” - he would have regarded it as impossible because it is an atomist model.
Again, you’ll have to provide relevant passages from Aristotle’s work for me to be able to comment more appropriately on this. The best I can manage is that the word “pure substance” is being used ambiguously. I think Aristotle would have regarded “earth as such” as a “pure substance”, because earth was one of the basic elements, so dividing it up is not going to yield a different substance. But we never encountered “earth as such” in nature, but different substances composed of earth structured differently. So talking about a modern chemical compound is probably not getting at what Aristotle would have regarded as a pure substance anyway. In any event, I don’t even know whether there even is a basic “pure substance” that you cannot divide up, beyond what we already know about at the subatomic level.

I don’t think it matters all too much in any case since the relevant point was his disagreement with the atomists. The atomists thought that the pure substances were the only substances, and everything else is merely an accidental arrangement of atoms of these pure substances. Aristotle probably didn’t take issue with the notion of atoms but with the notion that substances are only found on the atomic level (again, using atomic in the ancient sense).
 
I am not saying atomism is at the “bottom” of the multi-layered view of reality that Science puts before us. But it certainly operates at the “chemical” layer (ie the atomic model) which best explains substantial change at the macro level as opposed to accidental change.

Personally it seems reality of course is still much deeper than atoms… it is somehow based on “nothingness of matter”. Do quarks actually have matter or extension when they stand still - or only when they move in the matter-less Higgs field?

I agree, the atomic model is real, but only a stepping stone to something stranger still.
Well, things probably get “stranger” the “lower you go” since you are getting closer and closer to pure potentiality, which does not have any actualities so it is not definable except as the potential for acquiring some actuality. Quarks have most of the actuality stripped away (all the actuality at the higher levels) so it is difficult to get a good definition of what they are precisely. What doesn’t make too much sense is the modern tendency to think that you get “more real” the “lower you go” even though you are losing actuality by going lower.
 
Blue,

Angels certainly do move. Scripture is full of the movement of Angels. Abraham was visited by three angels. Their sudden appearance indicates movement. Then again they told Abraham that they were going to go to Sodom to see if the things they heard were true. Again, Jacob wrestled with an angel all night and then the angel departed after blessing Jacob. Again, angels came and ministered to Our Lord in Gethsimini.

Aquinas talks about the movement of angels in S.T., part 1, ques 53.

It is not something we are required to believe but it is nonetheless true.

Linus2nd
Linus I do not accept that angels can incarnate themselves by taking on human form.
They are pure spirits.

The story in the OT can be reconciled by a number of other ways more reasonable than what Aquinas, a captive of primitive medieval “Biblical criticism”, was perhaps forced to conclude.

I do not believe that the article of faith, that Christ’s soul descended into hell, means we must also hold that Jesus’s immaterial soul physically went down into the earth…
Do you?
 
Correct. Even the demons move.

Linus2nd
Possession of a human followed by possession of pigs is not necessarily local motion of the pure spirit itself sorry.

Of course it is a motion in the sense of a change of the target of the pure spirit’s operational powers. But not of the pure-spirit itself.

Ockham’s razor would suggest this contending explanation is the simpler and more harmonising, less self contradictory one, I would have thought 😊.
 
Can you list what these definitions are? I have not read Aristotle directly so all I know is how modern proponents of the “Aristotelian/Thomist tradition” define substance, which is the definition I have been attempting to defend in this thread.
It is something I noticed in different contexts. When Aristotle talks of living beings as substances different principles are invoked from when he speaks of “inorganic” substances. I’m by no means the first to notice this and I recently came across an article (Stanford Uni site I believe) that isolates 4-5 different ways that Aristotle speaks of substance over his corpus at different stages in his works. I’ll see if I can find it again.
I will attempt to illustrate the point with the figure attached to the bottom of this post. In Fig. A you define the individual atoms as substances, so you have 2 hydrogen substances and 1 oxygen substance. In Fig. B you define the H2O as the substance, so you have 1 blue H2O substance. In Fig. C, you attempt to define both the atoms and the H2O as substances, but then you have two substances occupying the same matter, since the oxygen atom is both an oxygen substance and an H2O substance (signified by the blended colors). So you either have to accept that the atoms are the substances and H2O’s properties are purely accidental, or you have to accept that H2O is the substance and the atoms are virtually present.
I don’t really understand your point 😊.
I am suggesting two lines of enquiry…
(a) In a H20 molecule we are no longer dealing with individual atoms.
However, in bulk H20 (ie water) a certain % of these molecules at any given time has separated into individual ions…including individual atoms of Hydrogen as H+.
(Also, even our individual H20 molecule could at any time split into ions).
In this scenario I accept that in a coherent molecule of H20 we are no longer dealing with the active presence of hydrogen.
(b) In this scenario we could look in a purely mechanistic way at the H2O molecule.
If we put a knife through one of the HO bonds we would end up with either:
(i) a H atom (if the knife cut through when the shared electron was on the H side) OR
(ii) a H+ ion (if the electron was on the O side at the time of cutting).
Keep in mind that, for the Thomist at least, the substantial form is part of what makes the thing in question actually exist. Without substantial form, you just have pure potency, which is not a thing at all. So you can’t have two substantial forms on the same matter since you would be causing the thing in question to exist twice over.
You’ve left time out of consideration. I suppose I am saying, in the above examples, that at one time its one substance at another time its another. That is what I mean by dynamic equilibrium between ionised and molecular states.
But you were defining water as the “dynamic equilibrium of H2O, H+, OH-, and other related molecules/ions.”
Yes. But I wasn’t really defining water, rather just describing some pertinent and unavoidable behaviours discoverable in that everyday “thing” we call water.
That equilibrium is the unifying form of all the underlying parts, making them really water,
Well you are talking about a forest here…I was only observing some trees…
so the properties of all those individual parts are present only virtually in the equilibrium
I don’t really understand what you mean by “virtually” here.
I would observe that all the molecules/ions mentioned above are actually present at any given time. And in so far as ions can reform into molecules, and molecules into ions…then ions are also potentially present in molecules and molecules are potentially present in ions.
since the equilibrium is what is defining the water substance using the above definition.
I don’t think so. The equilibrium is essentially an aggregated mixture of actual substances dynamically acting upon each other. You infer a single forest…I just see a lot of trees interacting eternally.
If the underlying molecules and ions are substances as well, then they are counted twice
I don’t really understand what you mean here.
If the molecules and ions are the real substances, then the equilibrium is only accidental.
This is worth teasing out I think - though I don’t understand how you are defining equilibrium here - let alone your distinction between accidental and substantial equilibrium.

For me “equilibrium” is a special type of reversible two-way change unexplored by Aristotle. Aristotle, it seems, assumed irreversible changes were substantial (eg burning) …and reversible changes were accidental (water to steam, steam to water).

But modern science would disagree.
Burning can be perfectly reversible (quicklime/slaked lime, burnt mercury) as Priestly discovered.

The alleged clear line between substantial and accidental change is therefore blurred in equilibriums … esp at the atomic level. Maybe Aristotle’s theory of substance (which is meant to be non atomic in principle) does not cope well when we look at reality at the atomic level as Chemists are want to do.
 
…Again, you’ll have to provide relevant passages from Aristotle’s work for me to be able to comment more appropriately on this. The best I can manage is that the word “pure substance” is being used ambiguously. I think Aristotle would have regarded “earth as such” as a “pure substance”, because earth was one of the basic elements…
No, this would not be the case.
Nevermind we have prob reached a limit situation on this point if you are not familiar with Aristotle in this area.
 
Well, things probably get “stranger” the “lower you go” since you are getting closer and closer to pure potentiality, which does not have any actualities so it is not definable except as the potential for acquiring some actuality. Quarks have most of the actuality stripped away (all the actuality at the higher levels) so it is difficult to get a good definition of what they are precisely. What doesn’t make too much sense is the modern tendency to think that you get “more real” the “lower you go” even though you are losing actuality by going lower.
Good stuff.
But they are getting “more real” (ie understand more) in so far as the way the constituents relate to each other becomes less complex (ie fewer parts rather than uncomplicated) and more unified.
 
Linus I do not accept that angels can incarnate themselves by taking on human form.
They are pure spirits.
No one said that they became " incarnate. " That was the invalid assumption you made from my comment. Actually theologians tell us that angels have the power to form " bodies " from natual elements and they use these as " actors " in which they dwell.as efficient movers, giving the impression that these " actors " were real people. Whereas, they were spitits " dressed up " in what appeared to be living bodies.
The story in the OT can be reconciled by a number of other ways more reasonable than what Aquinas, a captive of primitive medieval “Biblical criticism”, was perhaps forced to conclude.
This was not only Aquinas’ conclusion, it continues to be held by Catholic Theologians and others as well…
I do not believe that the article of faith, that Christ’s soul descended into hell, means we must also hold that Jesus’s immaterial soul physically went down into the earth…
Do you?
Keep in mind " hell " in this context is not the hell of condemned souls. It is most probably purgatory or another place of rest for those souls who passed before Christ’s death and Resurrectiion. .

If Christ’s immaterial soul did not actually descend into " hell " what did? It certainly was not his body. Anyway, that is what Aquinas and all the Fathers of the Church say and what the Church has always taught and what the Catechisms teach.

Linus2nd

Linus2nd
 
Possession of a human followed by possession of pigs is not necessarily local motion of the pure spirit itself sorry.

Of course it is a motion in the sense of a change of the target of the pure spirit’s operational powers. But not of the pure-spirit itself.

Ockham’s razor would suggest this contending explanation is the simpler and more harmonising, less self contradictory one, I would have thought 😊.
Throwing out Ockham’s razor is no argument. That is very similar to the " god of the gaps " accusation constantly leveled against believers. In other words it amounts to a pejorative, boarding on insult and should be regarded as such. Arguments should be accepted or rejected on their merits. If wrong, they should actually be proven wrong.

However, as you say, spirits move in a different way than material beings move. Aquinas had a long explanation if you care to read his teatise on Angels in the S.T. And when an angel moves, it is found in a different place than that which it previously filled.

Linus2nd
 
I don’t really understand your point 😊.
The point is actually quite basic, but it requires looking at things from God’s perspective so-to-speak. It is referring to the conjoining of essences with existence (i.e. creatio ex nihilo). If you say that the H2O is a substance and the individual atoms are substances, then you have the same matter being created twice over.
I am suggesting two lines of enquiry…
(a) In a H20 molecule we are no longer dealing with individual atoms.
However, in bulk H20 (ie water) a certain % of these molecules at any given time has separated into individual ions…including individual atoms of Hydrogen as H+.
(Also, even our individual H20 molecule could at any time split into ions).
In this scenario I accept that in a coherent molecule of H20 we are no longer dealing with the active presence of hydrogen.
(b) In this scenario we could look in a purely mechanistic way at the H2O molecule.
If we put a knife through one of the HO bonds we would end up with either:
(i) a H atom (if the knife cut through when the shared electron was on the H side) OR
(ii) a H+ ion (if the electron was on the O side at the time of cutting).
OK, that’s one way of looking at it, and then you would be right that the substance of water goes away when the molecule splits. But you were talking about the dynamic equilibrium of water with H+ and OH- ions earlier so I was attempting to consider what it would entail to say that the dynamic equilibrium is the substance. When you say that H2O is the substance, then the atoms and their properties/activities are “wrapped up” into the H2O substance. If you say that the dynamic equilibrium is the substance, then the H2O, H+, and OH-, their properties/activities, and their interactions with each other are wrapped up into the substance of water, which might be a better alternative since it captures more of the essential nature of water.

If you say that the substance is strictly H2O, then the equilibrium and the properties that manifest because of the equilibrium is only accidental, since it is simply H2O substances interacting with H+ and OH- substances and the equilibrium only happens to accidentally result as a consequence of those interactions. If the properties of the equilibrium are determined to be essential to water, then saying the dynamic equilibrium of the H2O molecules and its associated ions is the substance of water may be more appropriate. Does that make more sense?
 
Any way you look at it, water is just water, a specific substance. You cannot reach in and " see " either oxygen or hydrogen. These substances do not exist until we apply either electrolysis or some other force on the substance of water. Therefore we say that oxygen and hydrogen exist in water " virtually " only. But I think it would be better to say that they existed in the substance of water potentially. I think Aquinas preferred to use " virtually, " but I think " potentially " is better.

Linus2nd
 
The point is actually quite basic, but it requires looking at things from God’s perspective so-to-speak. It is referring to the conjoining of essences with existence (i.e. creatio ex nihilo). If you say that the H2O is a substance and the individual atoms are substances, then you have the same matter being created twice over.
OK, been away for a week or so…
The relationship between essence and existence is really Aquinas … I am really only talking about Aristotle’s distinction between substantial change and accidental change in inorganic examples this small discussion. (Even Aquinas’s view is disputed).
… you were talking about the dynamic equilibrium of water with H+ and OH- ions earlier so I was attempting to consider what it would entail to say that the dynamic equilibrium is the substance.
Not quite. The dynamic equilibrium I speak of is really of H2O with the ions.
That “mixture” is what we commonly describe as water at the macro level.
When you say that H2O is the substance, then the atoms and their properties/activities are “wrapped up” into the H2O substance. If you say that the dynamic equilibrium is the substance, then the H2O, H+, and OH-, their properties/activities, and their interactions with each other are wrapped up into the substance of water, which might be a better alternative since it captures more of the essential nature of water.
I am not too hung up on defining what is or isn’t a substance…but more about what constitutes substantial change as opposed to accidental change. I am saying that even a simple understanding of what happens in water at the atomic level renders Aristotle’s natural philosophy in this area sterile if not contradictory.

And for a number of reasons:
(a) Change is actually the order of the day - not stability. (Yes there is a stability, but it is not one of the involved substance itself).
(b) it seems not even pure substances are solid and infinitely divisible…that is why Aristotle cannot be well applied to explain what happens at atomic or even molecular level.
(c) Aristotle holds that local motion is always an accidental change…yet we clearly see this axiom is violated at atomic level. If two hydrogen atom electrons begins to be shared with an atom of oxygen…viola we have a substantial change for these gases become H2O with very different macro, real-world properties. How can a mechanical change of place or local motion do this? In Aristotle this is impossible.
In short, Aristotle’s principles here only hold at the macro level, not the micro level.

But back to your quote:
“the dynamic equilibrium is the substance” … I think this is poorly worded perhaps.
Dynamic Equilibrium is but a eversible two way change…but change can never be a substance.

I am not really interested in “water” (which isn’t a pure substance at all but rather a continuously changing aggregation, perhaps, of more stable substances (H2O and H+).
I am not sure of the status of a OH- ion. In one way it is a substance (it is relatively stable, pure and with its own properties. However, unlike H+, there is no nascent, stable elemental form. It only exists in equilibrium with other oppositely charged ions.

Sure I understand how, metaphysically (as opposed to naturo-physically) one can speak of water as a “substance” (just as a house can be called a substance I suppose). However, “substance” is being used analogically not univocally here. Hence my previous comments about the varying ways that Aristotle define’s “substance” throughout his corpus. I believe the definitions are at times contradictory.
Hence, for the purpose of this discussion, I confine myself to pure-substances of the sensible order (ie pretty much inorganic chemistry examples).

If you say that the substance is strictly H2O, then the equilibrium and the properties that manifest because of the equilibrium is only accidental, since it is simply H2O substances interacting with H+ and OH- substances and the equilibrium only happens to accidentally result as a consequence of those interactions. If the properties of the equilibrium are determined to be essential to water, then saying the dynamic equilibrium of the H2O molecules and its associated ions is the substance of water may be more appropriate. Does that make more sense?
 
Any way you look at it, water is just water, a specific substance. You cannot reach in and " see " either oxygen or hydrogen. These substances do not exist until we apply either electrolysis or some other force on the substance of water. Therefore we say that oxygen and hydrogen exist in water " virtually " only. But I think it would be better to say that they existed in the substance of water potentially. I think Aquinas preferred to use " virtually, " but I think " potentially " is better.

Linus2nd
Mere assertion Linus, back it up with reasoned argument if you can.
But I do not believe your understanding of chemistry is up to the task if you personally believe what you just expressed above.

H+ ions are certainly present whether you like it or not.
And if H+ is present then, by logic, you must hold that the substance hydrogen is present.
Or do you disagree?

I further suggest water is in fact a mixture of substances, an aggregation, not a pure substance as Aristotle would define that term. (His principles of macro mixtures is unable to explain this sort of mixture, nevertheless that is the case).

Yes you can reach in and see the actually present existing building blocks.
Not always with the eyes, but certainly with instruments which are extensions of the senses as I know you accept.

Actually, with some of the larger molecules we can actually see them with micro-imaging techniques. Images are available on the Internet if you care to research.

They conform exactly to what atomic theory, abstracted from countless thousands of experiments over the last 300 yrs, predicts.
 
Throwing out Ockham’s razor is no argument. That is very similar to the " god of the gaps " accusation constantly leveled against believers. In other words it amounts to a pejorative, boarding on insult and should be regarded as such. Arguments should be accepted or rejected on their merits. If wrong, they should actually be proven wrong.

However, as you say, spirits move in a different way than material beings move. Aquinas had a long explanation if you care to read his teatise on Angels in the S.T. And when an angel moves, it is found in a different place than that which it previously filled.

Linus2nd
Linus, I do not accept that the Church has a clear teaching on how angels move locally…or even that angels can move locally.

In situations like this (where there are clear gaps in both knowledge and certainty) all we can do is speculate.

In cases of speculation Ochkam’s razor is a perfectly valid way of picking more likely solutions from less likely ones.

I am surprised you think otherwise.

Noone doubts that even a highly over complicated explanation could be right…
But in terms of probability (which is the case with uncertain views) some views are clearly more likely than others.

Clearly Aquinas is drawing a very long bow…and only because he is constrained by Biblical and literal considerations we today no longer feel constrained by…just as the Church no longer feels constrained to have man, and hence earth, at the centre of a well baptised Ptolemaic cosmos.
 
If you say that the substance is strictly H2O, then the equilibrium and the properties that manifest because of the equilibrium is only accidental, since it is simply H2O substances interacting with H+ and OH- substances and the equilibrium only happens to accidentally result as a consequence of those interactions. If the properties of the equilibrium are determined to be essential to water, then saying the dynamic equilibrium of the H2O molecules and its associated ions is the substance of water may be more appropriate. Does that make more sense?
Missed this out…

I suppose I am saying that no substance is strictly anything in practice.
H2O molecules are always breaking down. Those ions are always reforming into H2O - though perhaps with different partners than before.

You speak of water as if it is a substance. But if it is a aggregate as I suggest then how can you treat it as if it is a substance in the same way that H2O is a substance of Hydrogen ions are the substance hydrogen? An aggregate sort of has properties I suppose by reason of local proximity to other mixed in substances …but differently from the way that a pure substance has properties.

The equilibrium (ie the ability to do this) is not found in the aggregate (ie what we call water) but is intrinsic to the polarity of atoms themselves isn’t it? Except perhaps the inert elements which have full electron shells and hence no inclination to “mate” with their non-existant polar opposites.
the equilibrium only happens to accidentally result as a consequence of those interactions.
I don’t think so. Ionisation (and the degree thereof) is a direct consequence of the polarity between the molecule’s involved elements and the energy difference between the formed molecule and its constituent ions.

Linus was suggesting that it is observation that supplies the energy needed for ionisation equilibrium to occur at all. This isn’t correct, he seems to be confusing his source authors who are more likely talking sub-atomic physics (where observation itself interferes with the speed/position of electrons for example).
The vibration energy of molecules themselves (due simply to temperature) is enough to catalyse ionisation and ensure H2O molecules are always breaking down into H+ ions and H+ ions back into H2O incessantly.
If the properties of the equilibrium are determined to be essential to water…
As above I find this a curious way of putting things.

Aristotle defines nine accidents (which is presumably what you mean by properties) of a substance…and change (ie equilibrium) is not one of them.

Nor does he say that two different substances can share the same accidents (ie properties)…if by “equilibrium” you mean the mix of ions and H2O molecules.

Yes we can locally mix substances in an accidental fashion without destroying the constituent substances (eg salt and sand).

Therefore, by Aristotle, the “equilibrium” cannot be the subject of particular “properties.”

The proper seat of these equilibrium properties therefore derive from the essential polarity (incomplete electron shells) of the individual aggregated substances themselves (H2O, H+ etc) involved.
As suggested above all three are lacking in some way wrt orbiting electrons.
This is what makes both covalent bonds and their breaking (ionisation) continuously possible without added energy from outside the system.

It seems to me that what we call “the properties of water” primarily and properly flow from its constituent substances not from the “water”. Water is but an aggregation and a result of the nature of the H20 molecule (and the ions it continuously reforms from).

Surely water is simply not a substance in the same way (ie at the same level) we call H2O and its ions substances.
 
No one said that they became " incarnate. "
I was informing you of my belief Linus as a first step in my argument.
That does not mean that I believe you must have the opposite belief does it?

Given that you agree that angels only give the impressiojn of having bodies then you must agree that they are not locally present.
In which case it is not unreasonable to hold that they only give the impression of local movement.
Actually theologians tell us that angels have the power to form " bodies " from natual elements and they use these as " actors " in which they dwell.as efficient movers, giving the impression that these " actors " were real people. Whereas, they were spitits " dressed up " in what appeared to be living bodies. This was not only Aquinas’ conclusion, it continues to be held by Catholic Theologians and others as well…
Can you find a Magisterial statement or a well regarded theologian from a Pontifical University in the last 100 years who would hold the above as a primary explanation?

Even so its just pure speculation isn’t it?
Keep in mind " hell " in this context is not the hell of condemned souls. It is most probably purgatory or another place of rest for those souls who passed before Christ’s death and Resurrectiion. .
Why is that relevant Linus.
I don’t believe Lazarus’s soul was in the top level of Dante’s purgatory beneath a volcano somewhere under my feet. Do you? How can a soul which does not inform a body have dimension and be positioned under the same earth we inhabit? Can souls be in the same place at the same time? Does our faith here have to teach us this incomprehensible sort of “science” as well as the deeper religious truth we all understand and accept?
If Christ’s immaterial soul did not actually descend into " hell " what did? It certainly was not his body. Anyway, that is what Aquinas and all the Fathers of the Church say and what the Church has always taught and what the Catechisms teach.
The problem is yours not mine Linus. How can something you accept is immaterial be in a material place?

Regardless, you are trying to force a physicalist meaning on expressions of faith that are clearly analogical. “Descend” surely does not have to mean literally beneath the ground we stand on?

When the Bible says the sun darkened…does that have to mean it was literally extinguished at source for a period of time. Of course not. Other understandings are acceptable.

Its unreasonable to hold to a single traditional Greek/Jewish/medieval understanding of demonic experiences from 1000-3000 years ago when other models are acceptable and perhaps more consistent with Christian theology.
 
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