Aquinas's Five definitions of God

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In the Compendium, Aquinas says Eve was the person the Serpent tempted first because “the light of reason shone less brightly in her”.
Well there’s three ways to look at this. One is that Aquinas made a mistake. He’s not infallible, it’s possible.

Another is that women weren’t in as many leadership positions and Aquinas did indeed assume at the time that women weren’t as smart. If Aquinas were in the modern world he’d almost certainly change his tune.

Or maybe there’s something to it. Remember, Adam was with God alone; Eve never was. Adam’s relationship was a bit more personal (which is why his sin was worse). It was harder for Eve to believe God, having never had him as her only “rational” companion. It was easier for her to be convinced by the serpent for that reason. Adam had to be convinced by somebody created by God, who he knew he could trust-Eve. Perhaps that’s how Aquinas meant it.
 
Well there’s three ways to look at this. One is that Aquinas made a mistake. He’s not infallible, it’s possible.

Another is that women weren’t in as many leadership positions and Aquinas did indeed assume at the time that women weren’t as smart. If Aquinas were in the modern world he’d almost certainly change his tune.

Or maybe there’s something to it. Remember, Adam was with God alone; Eve never was. Adam’s relationship was a bit more personal (which is why his sin was worse). It was harder for Eve to believe God, having never had him as her only “rational” companion. It was easier for her to be convinced by the serpent for that reason. Adam had to be convinced by somebody created by God, who he knew he could trust-Eve. Perhaps that’s how Aquinas meant it.
You cannot possibly be serious. If YOU were in court, and YOU could be exonerated by DNA, YOU would use it to do that. YOU accept DNA. Mitochondrial DNA proves that Eve came first.

Sorry folks I have made a grave error. I though I saw the sign that said “Philosophy Forum”. I misread my map. It must have said “book referrals → way”, and “party for self-congratualtions for those who already have the Truth” → way.

I will be more careful to read my map in the future.

I won’t be making the same mistake again.

Knock yourselves out.
 
Faith is a virtue, freely and graciously granted by the Holy Spirit. There are no proofs of God. If there were, faith would not be necessary, and the gifts of the Spirit would be unnecessary.

Aquinas was unaware of many things, and his proofs are easily refuted, today. That in no way invalidates the wonderful gifts, and graces of Almighty God.

To wit :
  1. Unmoved mover.
  • Assumes linnear time, and, that linnear time is (already) in place.
Not so. The First Way depicts the simultaneous motion of the mover and the mobile, in series.
  • Assumes causality, and that causality is (already) in place. If God “caused” causality, it assumes causality (already) in place. (Infinite Regression).
Translation, please.
  • Aquinas did not know about Relativity. ((There is no absolute (linnear) time)).
He didn’t need to. It was irrelevant to what he was arguing.
(A cause, with a different direction/position/speed in spacetime, ie in the future of the object moved, could be the cause of motion, in it’s relative past), and vice versa.
That’s about as vague as anyone could be!
  • Assumes the universe is intuitive. (we know from Einstein, Heisenberg, and Dirac, that it is not).
Not so.
  • Assumes ALL things in motion could not have always been in, or possessed, motion, without having established that that is not possible. States something with no proof.
Then show me a billiard ball, on a perfectly level pool table, move itself. Show me a tree that brought itself into existence. Show me a human being that brought himself into being. Show me absolute abiogenesis.
What he really should have said is “acceleration requires energy”.
Not so. He was speaking directly to motion, the act of the potential precisely as potential. Nothing more, nothing less. You are dramatically altering the arguments.
We know from physics it is acceleration which requires (name removed by moderator)ut of energy, not motion.
It doesn’t matter. It is irrelevant.
Aquinas did not know about “increasing rate(s) of motion”, (acceleration).
I’m sure he did, but it was irrelevant.
Physics tells us “things in motion stay in motion”.
Just as Newton predicted:

“Every body continues in its state of rest, or of uniform motion in a right [straight] line, unless it is compelled to change that state by forces impressed thereon.” - Isaac Newton
Show me a place in the universe where this simple experiment could be tested.
The (name removed by moderator)ut of energy into a system to initiate an increase in motion can arise from many sources, including the conversion of matter to energy, and chemical energy to motion, not just “motion”.
These would only further contribute to Aquinas’ dialectic. Not a good argument to have brought into the picture.
Thus motion’s origin/transfer is not really the question here. (The question here is really the origins of energy. Since this question is not addressed in Aquinas’ argument, I am not required to address it, either, as my purpose here is simply to show his arguments are fallacious.)
Which you have utterly failed to do.
Aquinas did not know matter and energy are interchangeable. (E=mc2).
It was irrelevant. And, it’s still irrelevant to his argument.
Aquinas’ other sub- assertions about this are stated, but not proven, in any way, and the individual argumants which are staed as conclusions, are staed as if they were the only possible conclusion, with no proof that is true.
Such as:
  • First and foremost, this argument assumes an object which “appears” at rest, really IS (completely) at rest, and that we have the ability to determine that.
No, it does not.
a. Particle Physics knows that is fundamentally false, (Aquinas did not know about atoms, their components, and their properties).
Irrelevant.
b. Uncertainty has shown us that there is no way to determine the absolute position of anything, thus absolute rest, cannnot be proven, and in fact, from the particle/wave duality, we know it never will be.
The “absoluteness” of rest was and is irrelevant.
c. A particle with absolutley no energy, (motion), has never been observed, or detected. Thus there is no way to test this proposition, and no reason to.
Not the argument. A red herring.
d. Assumes principle of transfer of energy of motion from one object to another object is, effective and efficient. Where did the principle come from ? If the transfer is not 100 % efficient,
A red herring probably based on almost total unfamiliarity with Aquinas’ argument.
(which it is not, as some energy is dissipated as friction, and some as radiant energy), why did the god create a less than perfect transfer system ? What is a “perfect” transfer system. If there is one, who made the system ? Who set up the perfect standard ? (See perfection below).
So! You are not a theist!
  1. First Cause
  • Assumes linnear time, and causality (already) in place. (Aquinas did not know about Relativity).
Irrelevant; red herring.
  1. Contingent Being.
    *. Essentially “god of the gaps”.
Ahh. Now we have something! He may well be the “God of the Gaps.” If everything is essentially Space, or more precisely, Infinite Space, or the “Mind of God,” and dimensionless particles undergoing continuous arrangement and re-arrangement form into equi-distant lattice points, producing we we see to be diverse matter, God could well be the “God of the Gaps!”
Also assumes linnear time and causality, (already) in place.
Again, irrelevant and a red herring.
If the Principle of Contingency is a fundamental element of the structure of the universe, then it is not possible that God created the principles to which, (“Contingent and non-Contingent” being), God is subject.
Absurd. Your naked assertion.
  1. Perfection.
  • Perfection is a relative perception. What I perceive as perfect is not what you perceive as perfect.
More gobbledygook from un-awareness of the argument.
  • Perfection’s definition is not established.
Irrelevant.
  • Assumes there is only one “perfect standard”. Has not established the standard. Has not established only one standard possible and/or necessary.
More gobbledygook based upon naked assertion.
  • States a creature is not as perfect as the idea of itself in mind of God.
Not so and not even pertinent.

I am in disbelief of the ineptness of this!
  • A Perfect, Omnipotent God could/would translate a perfect idea, into a perfect creature.
Says who? By what logic? Does God create other gods? Are we supposed to be “gods?”
  • Assumes God is subject to a structure of some sort, (already) in place, in the fabric of of the universe.
Not so. However, He may well be, IMHO.
Per Plato, (Euthyphro’s Dillema), (written for “morality”, but works here) :
  • If God made something perfect, did it have a reason ? If the creature was not perfect, how could it be a product of a perfect God ?
Why must a “Perfect God” create “perfect beings?” Or, one could ask, did He not originally produce “perfect beings?”
If God had no reason, for the state (of perfection and/or imperfection) of the creature, then He could have made something else, and there is no standard of perfection, (in the mind of God).
An absurd, really baseless conclusion. Merely your opinion.
If He could NOT have made something else, and still be God, then a standard exists, apart from God.
Irrelevant.
If there is a good reason, that reason exists, apart from God.
Could He have made something else ?
Why not? He made us in His image. He was under no compulsion to make anything.
If He could not create something else, then perfection exists apart from God.
Very bad argument, again based upon purely personal opinion.
Is something not perfect, because God says it’s not perfect, or is it not perfect, because it’s objectively not perfect , and God had to say that ?
Would something imperfect, be perfect, if God says it’s perfect ?
It would be impossible for God to create another God. Two (or more) side-by-side Infinite, Omnipotent Gods would be a contradiction. God does not make real contradictions. That you might perceive something as a contradiction, is not His problem.
Conclusions:
If God could not have made something which is imperferct, and still be God, then the source of the perfection is not God.
Not so. As said above, we are not and were not created to be co-gods.
If it would still be perfect , even if God says it’s not perfect, then the source of perfection is not God.
Insipid and absurd.
If the source of perfection is not God,then we must look elsewhere for guidance, on what is perfect. That is simply unacceptable to a person of faith.
Well, finally.
  1. Anthropic Principle.
    Refuted so many times, not worth discussion.
Again, another naked assertion.
(Trying to use reason to make the leap of faith, or accept the grace of faith, is a useless endeavor.) We must simply accept the graces, granted to us.
Conclusion: God gave us rationality to put in the back of a closet somewhere and never let it see the light of day.

Anyway,
God bless,
jd
 
Oh geez. :rolleyes: First of all every single silly “refutation” is based on ridiculous strawmen of the proofs. None of them are even CLOSE to refuting the actual proofs. It’s not even worth it to go through them all. There are just too many problems. You clearly misunderstand Aquinas completely, and I suggest you go read some stuff by Dr. Feser, like “The Last Superstition”. Read it with a clear mind and not with an attitude where you try to prove everything he says wrong and you should learn something. Or just read the Summa Theologica again, this time with an open mind; throw away every half-baked preconceived notion about the proofs that you have now.

But besides all of that, this is totally off topic from my original post. I said in my original post that we’re assuming for the sake of argument that the proofs are true. If you truly believe you actually made a brilliant post then I suggest you copy the whole thing and paste it into a new thread. I’m sure people will be very interested in checking out your “refutations” there.
Perfectly said!

God bless,
jd
 
Oh geeze. :rolleyes: right back at ya.
Sorry you folks will have to do a lot better than that. Refute any one of them if you can. Obviously you can’t even try. Aquinas does not have five "definitions,so the thread is nonsenscial. The “proofs” are not “strawmen”. Apparently you are not aware of the meaning of a “strawman” argument. I did not set up “strawmen” I directly address the proofs. This is a public forum. My post was on topic. The OP has no right to restrict posts which are on topic. Again, there exist no such thing as “definitions” apart from the proofs in the Summa Theologica, of Thomas Aquinas… Apparently you also have not read the Summa. A “definition” by definition, would limit God’s infinite nature. God is not definable, by humans.
Jason:

The problem is, that your re-characterizations are strawmen. Only your No. 4 is vaguely on point. But, very, very vaguely.

God bless,
jd
 
You cannot possibly be serious. If YOU were in court, and YOU could be exonerated by DNA, YOU would use it to do that. YOU accept DNA. Mitochondrial DNA proves that Eve came first.

Sorry folks I have made a grave error. I though I saw the sign that said “Philosophy Forum”. I misread my map. It must have said “book referrals → way”, and “party for self-congratualtions for those who already have the Truth” → way.

I will be more careful to read my map in the future.

I won’t be making the same mistake again.

Knock yourselves out.
One of the rules of the forum, if you had bothered to read them, is that the OP controls the direction of the debate, what is relevant, what is irrelevant, what is off-topic. How else could order be extant? Anybody could, by your POV, go into any thread and just usurp it. Can’t you see that that would produce chaos? And, perhaps an end to the forum?

I can’t say that I am surprised though. 🤷

God bless,
jd
 
If you started a thread that said, “Let’s assume for the sake of discussion that Episcopalianism is the true faith” you wouldn’t find it ridiculous if I came in and stopped all discussion by arguing over and over how false it is, even though that’s not the topic of the thread?

I can actually prove to you that I would “hesitate to say” if a thread was patently false. Somebody else started a thread with the phrase “if you were an atheist…” I played by the rules. If you’d like, I’ll show you the link.

The thread is about IF you accept the proofs. You don’t, so start your own thread or pretend you do to join in the discussion.

I don’t even have a problem with your beliefs about Aquinas. If you want me to I’ll go through your post in detail. But not in this thread. That’s not the topic of this thread. Please stop trying to change the topic.
Sorry, Marc:

I went into his post and posted answers to it, within the bounds of our 10,000 word limit. I shall discontinue doing more as it is disrupting your thread. :o

God bless,
jd
 
Sorry, Marc:

I went into his post and posted answers to it, within the bounds of our 10,000 word limit. I shall discontinue doing more as it is disrupting your thread. :o

God bless,
jd
Heh, honestly I think that that post was going to be necessary eventually anyway… I appreciate you for coming to my defense. :o

Back on topic. JDaniel, you mention that each proof, except for the “Necessary Being” proof, must only have one being. That is true. But what I’m wondering is why there can’t be five beings, if each of the proof describes an aspect of God that controls a separate part of the universe. What is the connecting thread?
 
Heh, honestly I think that that post was going to be necessary eventually anyway… I appreciate you for coming to my defense. :o

Back on topic. JDaniel, you mention that each proof, except for the “Necessary Being” proof, must only have one being. That is true. But what I’m wondering is why there can’t be five beings, if each of the proof describes an aspect of God that controls a separate part of the universe. What is the connecting thread?
Yikes! Good question. Let me think about it over night. I’ll get back to you tomorrow.

God bless, and
good night,
jd
 

Back on topic. JDaniel, you mention that each proof, except for the “Necessary Being” proof, must only have one being. That is true. But what I’m wondering is why there can’t be five beings, if each of the proof describes an aspect of God that controls a separate part of the universe. What is the connecting thread?
What do we know about God,from our reason?

From Summa, Question 3, article 4
God is not only His own essence, as shown in the preceding article, but also His own existence
From Summa, Question 3, article 5
That He cannot be a species of any genus may be shown in three ways
More to the specifically to the point:
The absolute simplicity of God may be shown in many ways.
First, from the previous articles of this question. For there is neither composition of quantitative parts in God, since He is not a body; nor composition of matter and form; nor does His nature differ from His “suppositum”; nor His essence from His existence; neither is there in Him composition of genus and difference, nor of subject and accident. Therefore, it is clear that God is nowise composite, but is altogether simple.
Secondly, because every composite is posterior to its component parts, and is dependent on them; but God is the first being, as shown above (Question 2, Article 3).
Thirdly, because every composite has a cause, for things in themselves different cannot unite unless something causes them to unite. But God is uncaused, as shown above (Question 2, Article 3), since He is the first efficient cause.
Fourthly, because in every composite there must be potentiality and actuality; but this does not apply to God; for either one of the parts actuates another, or at least all the parts are potential to the whole.
Fifthly, because nothing composite can be predicated of any single one of its parts. And this is evident in a whole made up of dissimilar parts; for no part of a man is a man, nor any of the parts of the foot, a foot. But in wholes made up of similar parts, although something which is predicated of the whole may be predicated of a part (as a part of the air is air, and a part of water, water), nevertheless certain things are predicable of the whole which cannot be predicated of any of the parts; for instance, if the whole volume of water is two cubits, no part of it can be two cubits. Thus in every composite there is something which is not it itself. But, even if this could be said of whatever has a form, viz. that it has something which is not it itself, as in a white object there is something which does not belong to the essence of white; nevertheless in the form itself, there is nothing besides itself. And so, since God is absolute form, or rather absolute being, He can be in no way composite. Hilary implies this argument, when he says (De Trin. vii): “God, Who is strength, is not made up of things that are weak; nor is He Who is light, composed of things that are dim.”
Marc Antony, I believe Aquinas answers your question very concretely. If there are 5 different beings, then God would be a composite. He is not.
 
Faith is a virtue, freely and graciously granted by the Holy Spirit. There are no proofs of God. If there were, faith would not be necessary, and the gifts of the Spirit would be unnecessary.

Aquinas was unaware of many things, and his proofs are easily refuted, today. That in no way invalidates the wonderful gifts, and graces of Almighty God.

To wit :
  1. Unmoved mover.
  • Assumes linnear time, and, that linnear time is (already) in place.
  • Assumes causality, and that causality is (already) in place. If God “caused” causality, it assumes causality (already) in place. (Infinite Regression).
  • Aquinas did not know about Relativity. ((There is no absolute (linnear) time)).
    (A cause, with a different direction/position/speed in spacetime, ie in the future of the object moved, could be the cause of motion, in it’s relative past), and vice versa.
  • Assumes the universe is intuitive. (we know from Einstein, Heisenberg, and Dirac, that it is not).
  • Assumes ALL things in motion could not have always been in, or possessed, motion, without having established that that is not possible. States something with no proof.
    What he really should have said is “acceleration requires energy”. We know from physics it is acceleration which requires (name removed by moderator)ut of energy, not motion. Aquinas did not know about “increasing rate(s) of motion”, (acceleration). Physics tells us “things in motion stay in motion”. The (name removed by moderator)ut of energy into a system to initiate an increase in motion can arise from many sources, including the conversion of matter to energy, and chemical energy to motion, not just “motion”. Thus motion’s origin/transfer is not really the question here. (The question here is really the origins of energy. Since this question is not addressed in Aquinas’ argument, I am not required to address it, either, as my purpose here is simply to show his arguments are fallacious.) Aquinas did not know matter and energy are interchangeable. (E=mc2).
    Aquinas’ other sub- assertions about this are stated, but not proven, in any way, and the individual argumants which are staed as conclusions, are staed as if they were the only possible conclusion, with no proof that is true.
  • First and foremost, this argument assumes an object which “appears” at rest, really IS (completely) at rest, and that we have the ability to determine that.
    a. Particle Physics knows that is fundamentally false, (Aquinas did not know about atoms, their components, and their properties).
    b. Uncertainty has shown us that there is no way to determine the absolute position of anything, thus absolute rest, cannnot be proven, and in fact, from the particle/wave duality, we know it never will be.
    c. A particle with absolutley no energy, (motion), has never been observed, or detected. Thus there is no way to test this proposition, and no reason to.
    d. Assumes principle of transfer of energy of motion from one object to another object is, effective and efficient. Where did the principle come from ? If the transfer is not 100 % efficient, (which it is not, as some energy is dissipated as friction, and some as radiant energy), why did the god create a less than perfect transfer system ? What is a “perfect” transfer system. If there is one, who made the system ? Who set up the perfect standard ? (See perfection below).
  1. First Cause
  • Assumes linnear time, and causality (already) in place. (Aquinas did not know about Relativity).
  1. Contingent Being.
    *. Essentially “god of the gaps”. Also assumes linnear time and causality, (already) in place. If the Principle of Contingency is a fundamental element of the structure of the universe, then it is not possible that God created the principles to which, (“Contingent and non-Contingent” being), God is subject.
  2. Perfection.
  • Perfection is a relative perception. What I perceive as perfect is not what you perceive as perfect.
  • Perfection’s definition is not established.
  • Assumes there is only one “perfect standard”. Has not established the standard. Has not established only one standard possible and/or necessary.
  • States a creature is not as perfect as the idea of itself in mind of God. Not proven.
    ((Is actually a proof of NO god, and it makes God a non-perfect, (non-efficient, or less than perfect), Creator, which is not possible, to a person of faith)).
  • A Perfect, Omnipotent God could/would translate a perfect idea, into a perfect creature.
  • Assumes God is subject to a structure of some sort, (already) in place, in the fabric of of the universe.
Per Plato, (Euthyphro’s Dillema), (written for “morality”, but works here) :
  • If God made something perfect, did it have a reason ? If the creature was not perfect, how could it be a product of a perfect God ?
    If God had no reason, for the state (of perfection and/or imperfection) of the creature, then He could have made something else, and there is no standard of perfection, (in the mind of God).
    If He could NOT have made something else, and still be God, then a standard exists, apart from God.
    If there is a good reason, that reason exists, apart from God.
    Could He have made something else ?
    If He could not create something else, then perfection exists apart from God.
    Is something not perfect, because God says it’s not perfect, or is it not perfect, because it’s objectively not perfect , and God had to say that ?
    Would something imperfect, be perfect, if God says it’s perfect ?
    Conclusions:
    If God could not have made something which is imperferct, and still be God, then the source of the perfection is not God.
    If it would still be perfect , even if God says it’s not perfect, then the source of perfection is not God.
    If the source of perfection is not God,then we must look elsewhere for guidance, on what is perfect. That is simply unacceptable to a person of faith.
  1. Anthropic Principle.
    Refuted so many times, not worth discussion.
(Trying to use reason to make the leap of faith, or accept the grace of faith, is a useless endeavor.) We must simply accept the graces, granted to us.
You have listed many objections to Thomas and the Philosophy named after him. You have assumed they are valid. Of course Thomists are well aware them and have refuted them. I refer you to Edward Feser for starters: also Heri Renard, Cardinal Mercier, Jaques Maritain, Reginald Garrigou-Lagrange, Etien Gilson, Maurice R. Holloway, S.J., Charles A. Hart, George P. Klubertanz, S.J. ( I mention especillay his Philosophy of Human Nature because you clearly could use a good dose of a Realistic Theory of Human Knowledge), among others.

Your problem is that you appear to be overly impressed by the " philosophizing " of scientists and pseudo scinetists who assume as true a realistic theory of human knowledge in the practice and teaching of their trades, while rejecting the very foundations on which they stand in their " philosophizing. " A strane state of affairs indeed for such " brilliant " folks. Of course we all know the reason, they just don’t want God to exist because that " takes the fun out of life . " or so they think.

But your own case is quiet serious. By denying the objective basis for human knowledge and pleading " faith only " you commit several offenses. First you have removed any bases whatsoever for faith, since even " blind faith " requires some identity between knower and the object known ( i.e. a body of truths offered for belief ). Secondly, you have rejected any basis for any certain knowledge about anything. You cannot logically be certain about anything outside your own mind because you have rejected the basis for knowing the trurth about anything.

You get the point. Get Edward Feser’s " The Last Temptation, " its cheep enough in paper back and it is in at least some libraries. Then take your stand with the rest of us Moderate Realists in defence of all that is truely human and Devine.

👍👍👍👍
 
Aquinas : volume 1, question 32, Summa Theologica, ‘It is impossible to attain to the knowledge of the Trinity by natural reason. . . . Whoever, then, tries to prove the trinity of persons by natural reason, derogates from faith in two ways.’
 
Aquinas : volume 1, question 32, Summa Theologica, ‘It is impossible to attain to the knowledge of the Trinity by natural reason. . . . Whoever, then, tries to prove the trinity of persons by natural reason, derogates from faith in two ways.’
Jason:

I answer that, It is impossible to attain to the knowledge of the Trinity of divine Persons by natural reason. For, as above explained (Q XII, AA. 4, 11, 12), man cannot obtain the knowledge of God by natural reason except from creatures. Now creatures lead us to the knowledge of God, as effects due to their cause. Accordingly, by natural reason we can know of God that only which of necessity belongs to Him as the principle of all things, and we have cited this fundamental principle in treating of God as above (Q XII, A. 12).” - (Summa Theologica, First Part, Q. 32, Art. 1, Saint Thomas Aquinas)
I don’t know what you’re citing, but I’'m starting to understand your modus operandi, and your unstated purpose here.

God bless,
jd
 
Marc Antony, I believe Aquinas answers your question very concretely. If there are 5 different beings, then God would be a composite. He is not.
Well then, which of the 5 “gods” of the proofs are we talking about as simple? Can’t the “Prime Mover” be simple but the “Perfect Being” and the “Necessary Being” be different from the Prime Mover?
 
Wrong. The fact that Aquinas may have played a part in the development of some of the Christianities, historically, may or may not be relevant today. To say “without Aquinas” there would be no Angican faith, is tantamout to making him the Savior. Are you trying to imply, that without him, there would be no Catholic Church ? The fact is Aquinas, at one point in his career was condemned by the church, and he had a very checkerd career. No one in my Cathedral Parish has ever mentioned him, even once. Christianity did very nicely without him, and he filled a need in Scholasticism. The best way to insure one becomes irrelevant,is to stand on one postion, and never budge, while the world changes around one. The fact is Aquinas’ views, and proofs, are outdated. Unless Christianity can delelop new arguments which are at least aware of scince, it will be seen as an anachronism. The Church chnaged it’s mind on Evolution, and the Big Bang. They need to learn about Relativity, and the other advances.

In the Compendium, Aquinas says Eve was the person the Serpent tempted first because “the light of reason shone less brightly in her”. Say what ? He actually thought women were more studip than men. The Presiding Bishop of the Episcopal Church in the US, is one of those stupid women. So it seems, that WITH Aquinas, there would be no Episcopal Church, in the US today.
So, where do you think the Episcopal Church was in the 13th century? Or any other “Christianities?” Well, I’ll tell you…they were all one, and all Catholic. St. Thomas, in writing the Summa Theologica, profoundly influenced the dogma of the Church at that time, particularly in the areas of Christology and Trinitarian theology. Anyone with even a modicum of theological training would readily admit this and recognize the tremendous debt that all modern Christian denominations owe to St. Thomas Aquinas. Even the most Sola Scriptura evangelicals owe St. Thomas, though of course they would never admit it.

Since based on your stated expertise in scholarship of the Summa I assume you are playing devil’s advocate,I do thank you for the levity which your posts provide. We need more comic relief on Catholic Answers Forums!
 
If we were mitochondria, you’d be completely right.
I realized I misunderstood your original quote, so I apologize. Quick correction:

The existence of a physical body coming first in the timeline says nothing about who God first infused with a rational soul, which later became the norm of the human race due to God’s specific plan with us.

A human being as we know it is a rational animal; a mere biological homo sapiens existing first would tell us nothing about our actual first Mother, Eve, and when she was created.

I know I’m not taking my own advice, but when my own error is staring me in the face like this it’s hard not to fix it, especially considering that I have the opportunity to do so. 😊

Anyway, yeah, the original discussion…
 
So, where do you think the Episcopal Church was in the 13th century? Or any other “Christianities?” Well, I’ll tell you…they were all one, and all Catholic. St. Thomas, in writing the Summa Theologica, profoundly influenced the dogma of the Church at that time, particularly in the areas of Christology and Trinitarian theology. Anyone with even a modicum of theological training would readily admit this and recognize the tremendous debt that all modern Christian denominations owe to St. Thomas Aquinas. Even the most Sola Scriptura evangelicals owe St. Thomas, though of course they would never admit it.

Since based on your stated expertise in scholarship of the Summa I assume you are playing devil’s advocate,I do thank you for the levity which your posts provide. We need more comic relief on Catholic Answers Forums!
And, we welcome back with open arms all Episcopalian priests who recognize, at last, where their true home is! :dancing::extrahappy::bounce:
 
And, we welcome back with open arms all Episcopalian priests who recognize, at last, where their true home is! :dancing::extrahappy::bounce:
Just wanted to add that of course, and it hopefully goes without saying, we will accept all of the Episcopalian laity into the Catholic Christian fold as well. And anyone else, for that matter! We have pathways to initiation that cover every conceivable contingency (to use a Thomistic buzz word, lol!). :yup::love::bowdown2:
 
Well then, which of the 5 “gods” of the proofs are we talking about as simple? Can’t the “Prime Mover” be simple but the “Perfect Being” and the “Necessary Being” be different from the Prime Mover?
5 different Gods would be a composite. Even if different beings, they would constitute a composite. But that is impossible.

Two points seem clear:
God is not only His own essence, as shown in the preceding article, but also His own existence
This is proved in Question 3 article 4. This being the case, how can the Prime Mover be his own existense, and at the same time be different than the Necessary Being (who is responsible for all the existense of all other beings)? This is a question you have to answer if there are 5 different Gods. Saying it can happen is a logical contradiction, IMO.

So you are left with with God not being a composite, or a species of a genus, and it seems to answer your question.
 
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