C
cam100
Guest
JReducation provided a good explanation. I’d like to comment on a few points from your quote as well:
Archbishop Lefebvre’s excommunication was dictated by canon law. Pope John Paul II expressed his upholding of the applicable law in this situation. He clearly warned the Archbishop that his actions would bring about excommunication. Thus he upheld that canon law in that situation. This is just as good as if he had initiated the excomunication himself.
Now, IF the pope had never commented on the situation, one could argue that maybe he didn’t uphold that law in this situation, or believe it didn’t apply, and therefore the excommunication never occurred. But the pope made it very clear that he upheld the excommunication.
Canon law has authority because it is backed by whatever pope holds office. Without that backing, canon law ceases to bind. In other words, the pope has complete authority over canon law and can dispense from or abrogate it. However, his support for it makes it binding, just as if he had initiated the laws himself.But an ipso facto excommunication in which the actor was not guilty of a subjective mortal sin is also “as good as nonexistent”.
John Paul II did not excommunicate Archbishop Lefebvre. He declared that he had incurred an ipso facto excommunication, which requires a subjective mortal sin.
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If John Paul II would have actually excommunicated him, the SSPX would have less of an argument. Their only argument would be that it was unjust. But John Paul II did not excommunicate him. All he did was declare that he incurred an ipso facto excommunicated, which, as I have said, has so many “outs” in canon law that there is no way he actually incurred it…
Archbishop Lefebvre’s excommunication was dictated by canon law. Pope John Paul II expressed his upholding of the applicable law in this situation. He clearly warned the Archbishop that his actions would bring about excommunication. Thus he upheld that canon law in that situation. This is just as good as if he had initiated the excomunication himself.
Now, IF the pope had never commented on the situation, one could argue that maybe he didn’t uphold that law in this situation, or believe it didn’t apply, and therefore the excommunication never occurred. But the pope made it very clear that he upheld the excommunication.
Yes, I’ve read Canon 1323. According the SSPX’s loose interpretation of that canon however, almost NO ONE could be guilty of violating canon law because probably everyone who violates it thinks that they are justfied. How many people intend to send themselves to hell by knowingly violating what they believe to be a valid and binding canon law? They probably all claim they’re in the right. But the pope is the judge of this, and Pope John Paul II judged the Archbishop to be in violation of canon law.The 1983 code of canon law provides so many “outs” for an ipso facto excommunication that no one who is honest and of their right mind will conclude that the Archbishop incurred it. He was acting to perserve the faith in a day of apostasy, which justifies the act… and even if it didn’t justify it, as long as he thought it did, he did not incur excommunication. If you haven’t read the applicable canon law (I think 1323) you should.
Now, how do you know what each person of that time knew or didn’t know? St. Athanasius wrote about what he knew of the invalid excommunication and why it was invalid. We have his writings, so we know this. Thus he was justified. As far as other people, we don’t know how much they knew or who was guilty of what sins.And regarding St. Athanasius: Things are always very clear when you are separated from the events by hundreds of years. All anyone knew at the time was that Athanasius was excommunicated by the Pope, condemned by a council of over 300 Bishops, banned from his dioces 4 times, and spent 17 years in exile. I
f you think his innocent was perfectly clear during that time, you are either under an illusion or not being honest.