Faith101:
I used the Catholic version online, is King James the Bible the Protestants; use?
In any case, what is the word in the original language? That way we can find out which translation is more accurate.
Hi Faith
Been away for quite a while. Just browsing through this thread… Considering Muslims’ and Christians’ positions on who Jesus is, this is where we find big difference in our theology and understanding of God. Despite compromising sacred verses located both in the Bible and the Quran, esp when read off context, on moral issues we are very similar.
You are asking what’s the word – is it adore or worship? The answer to that question, even if found truthfully, will not conclude this discussion.
The Christians’ position that Jesus is truly divine and truly man is not founded just on the meaning of the word alone. Remember that our belief is not proven only in the Sacred Scripture but on the Sacred Tradition as well. And if there is any doubt on their meanings, we have the official teachings of the church as contained in the Magestrium or in the Catechism.
Your query as to why Jesus prayed to the Father, implying that he is lower than God, derived from your thought rooted in the theology of the Quran. It’s true Jesus used to pray (he prayed a lot). And how does one pray, if not to God? Jesus as human becomes for us a perfect example how to live as one.
Here is some insight into the person of Jesus as the second person of the Blessed Trinity.
Jesus is truly God and truly man, composed of body and rational soul; that he is the same substance with the Father in his divinity, of the same substance with us in his humanity, like us in every respect except for sin. (ref. Council of Chalcedon, A.D. 451).
Jesus possesses two distinct but inseparable natures, the divine and the human, united in one person. How are these 2 natures perfectly joined into one person? This remains a mystery. (Mystery is something greater than human mind can grasp). In essence God is a mystery except for the facts we know about him as been revealed to us.
Chalcedon could declare only that they
ARE joined, not how. Creeds and theological definition about God or Jesus can distinguish what is true and what is false, but they can never exhaust the mystery of the reality of God and his plan.
When we speak of Jesus’ two natures, it would be easy to think of Jesus behaving like a split personality – at one moment doing something human, the next moment doing something only God could do. Those who followed Jesus did not perceive him this way because these 2 natures n Jesus worked together in perfect harmony. Jesus human nature and human will were so conformed to his divine nature and divine will that the two were joined into an inseparable harmony so that we can truly say that Jesus was one person, not two, but composed of a divine and a human nature.
The divine nature of Jesus Christ is perceived by us only as it is reflected through the fullness and perfection of his human nature. As a man, Jesus came to do the will of his Father, God. As the Son of God, he alone was capable of doing this perfectly, being the only – begotten divine person, the Son of God incarnate.
The eternal son also assumed a rational, human soul (CCC 471). Jesus possesses two wills, divine and human, which cooperate so perfectly that Jesus in perfect obedience to the Father and his plan of salvation, always will humanly whatever his divine will dictates.
Rational human soul also means he had a human mind and knowledge as the Son of God. How these 2 “minds” work together do puzzled Christians. What did Jesus, as one person, really know when he was on earth? How could his human knowledge, naturally limited, be reconciled with his omniscience as the Son of God?
In becoming man, the eternal Word of God truly did empty himself – just as he accepted the limitation of a human body, he also accepted the limitation of a human mind. In his human nature, Jesus had to grow in knowledge and learn many things from experience, since he was like us in all things except sin.
Yet, the Bible testifies that Jesus spoke of things that only God would know, such as his intimate knowledge of his Father in heaven (see Mt 11:27, Mk 14:36, Jn 1:18, 8:55). How do we reconcile these?
Simply. “By its union to the divine wisdom, Christ enjoyed in his human knowledge the fullness of understanding of the eternal plans he had come to reveal. What he admitted to not knowing in this area, he elsewhere declared himself not sent to reveal” (CCC 474).
A clear example of the latter is found in Mk 13:22. In this text, Jesus was asked directly when the fulfillment of God’s Kingdom would come about. He answered that not even the Son knows this, but only the Father.
I have been warned already against asking too many hard to answer questions on this thread and the other. I have been censored a lot and my posts are sometimes not all there, I’m not complaining, I know there is a real risk of insulting some kinds of people, and that those people can even seek revenge if one should be so insensitive as to impugn their honor. So, I am grateful that I have been censored, it problably saved me a whole lot of big trouble, and I am sure they know what they are doing with this censorship - even life saving censorship I would guess! So, perhaps you would start this new thread for me dear friend? I sure you would have a much greater chance of success, and, then, I could make some small comments…, much thanks, exoflare (means “flame escaping to the outside” hdbarton :ehh: 
The Moslems believe in angels and devils and also a thing inbetween called Jinns (like the smoke comming out of addens’ lamp), but, they can be good or evil, so you can make deals with them and get rich etc. But they are really just like the "familiers the witches of Europe would have as their companions whom they also thought were their helpers. It’s in the Koran and all moslem writings. Not something I am making up. 
