Are moral acts part of the "works of the Law"?

[reccanboy]

Galatians 3:10 For all who rely on works of the law are under a curse; for it is written, “Cursed be everyone who does not abide by all things written in the Book of the Law, and do them.”

Paul quotes from Deuteronomy 27:26:

"16’Cursed is he who dishonors his father or mother.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’

17’Cursed is he who moves his neighbor’s boundary mark.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’

18’Cursed is he who misleads a blind person on the road.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’

19’Cursed is he who distorts the justice due an alien, orphan, and widow.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’

20’Cursed is he who lies with his father’s wife, because he has uncovered his father’s skirt.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’

21’Cursed is he who lies with any animal.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’

22’Cursed is he who lies with his sister, the daughter of his father or of his mother.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’

23’Cursed is he who lies with his mother-in-law.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’

24’Cursed is he who strikes his neighbor in secret.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’

25’Cursed is he who accepts a bribe to strike down an innocent person.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’

** 26’Cursed is he who does not confirm the words of this law by doing them.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’**

So, in the context of Deuteronomy, the words of the law are the moral commandments being mentioned in the preceding verses.

So, are we justified by keeping the moral law, or not?

 

[ejb21]

Why not look at what Paul says in Romans and Galatians. In Rom. 3:28 “For we hold that a man is justified by faith apart from works of law”. In Gal. 5:6 “For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision is of any avail, but faith working through love”. In Romans, Paul is clearly talking about circumcision. In chapter 4:1-6 Paul refers to works 4 times, but in 4:9-12 Paul refers to circumcision 9 times. Paul isn’t talking about good-deeds; he’s talking about the old, out-moded, ineffective old covenant ceremonial-ritual laws.

 

[ryanoneil]

In the context of Deuteronomy “works of the law” are of no use. They are works of debt, and we cannot obligate God to do anything for us. The new law is the law of Christ, which is faith working through love (good works). Faith justifies initially, but good works perfect and complete justification.

**You are separated from Christ, you who are trying to be justified by law; you have fallen from grace. (Gal 5:4)

For the whole law is fulfilled in one statement, namely, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” (Gal 5:14)

Bear one another’s burdens, and so you will fulfill the law of Christ. (Gal 6:2)**

 

[Catholic_Dude]

** 26’Cursed is he who does not confirm the words of this law by doing them.’ And all the people shall say, ‘Amen.’**

So, in the context of Deuteronomy, the words of the law are the moral commandments being mentioned in the preceding verses.

So, are we justified by keeping the moral law, or not?

Check out these two passages:
Gal 3: 15Brothers, let me take an example from everyday life. Just as no one can set aside or add to a human covenant that has been duly established, so it is in this case. 16The promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. The Scripture does not say “and to seeds,” meaning many people, but “and to your seed,” meaning one person, who is Christ. 17What I mean is this: The law, introduced 430 years later [after Abraham], does not set aside the covenant previously established by God and thus do away with the promise. 18For if the inheritance depends on the law, then it no longer depends on a promise; but God in his grace gave it to Abraham through a promise.

Genesis 26: 4 I will make your descendants as numerous as the stars in the sky and will give them all these lands, and through your offspring all nations on earth will be blessed, 5 because Abraham obeyed me and kept my requirements, my commands, my decrees and my laws."
Notice what is being said here, Paul’s main argument is that the Law could not have justified Abraham BECAUSE it didn’t even exist until 450 years after Abraham…so obviously it couldnt. Paul is NOT saying the Law didn’t justify Abraham because it was too hard for him to keep, Paul NEVER makes such an argument. Further, Scripture is clear in Gen 26 above that God’s promises of all those blessings was tied to Abraham’s continual obedience, starting as early as Gen 12 (Heb 11:8; Gal 3:8). The Protestant Sola Fide system cannot adequately address these issues, while the Catholic system can. Sola Fide is not only the wrong answer to Paul’s questions, Sola Fide is an answer to a question Paul NEVER even asked or envisioned.

So the issue of “moral law” versus “ceremonial law” has nothing to do with Paul’s argument. The issue should be seen more as English Law versus American Law, there are SIMILARITIES, but ultimately they are two different systems and as Americans we are only bound to the latter law. Paul says our justification has nothing to do with English Law (Mosaic Law) but that doesn’t mean there is no law or commandments we are bound to (see Mat 5-7!!!)…that is the mistake most people make when reading this. The Mosaic Law was a specific covenant for the Jews only, and it expired when Christ came (just as Americans are no longer under English Law), it’s no longer binding and thus plays no role in our justification. The Mosaic Law didn’t even include all good works, Christians are held to a higher standard (see Mk 10:2-12 as a great example).

We, through grace, are required to keep Christ’s Commandments to enter Heaven (eg Gal 6:7-9), but that is a totally different issue from Paul’s “works of the Law” talk.

Once you see this, then everything you see becomes more clear and Paul makes a lot more sense.

Also see this article on Ephesians 2:8
catholicdefense.googlepages.com/eph2