Are Mormons and Jehovah's Witnesses Christian?

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Well, the man Jesus had a human body of flesh and blood, which was finite. His divine nature was infinite.

The resurrected Jesus has a glorified body, which can be distributed without end to all who take communion with Him in the Eucharist. His divine nature is still infinite.
I would suggest that if a Catholic can believe that Christ is a single person with a dual nature. One nature is finite, glorified, and distributed without end; and the other nature is infinite. Then, it boarders on ridiculous to suggest, “To a Christian, a God of flesh and bone would not be infinite.”

In fact, not only is it ridiculous, I would suggest it evidence a profound inconsistency so egregious those who display this should be disbelieved (in general) when they defile my faith.

Charity, TOm
 
I would suggest that if a Catholic can believe that Christ is a single person with a dual nature. One nature is finite, glorified, and distributed without end; and the other nature is infinite. Then, it boarders on ridiculous to suggest, “To a Christian, a God of flesh and bone would not be infinite.”

In fact, not only is it ridiculous, I would suggest it evidence a profound inconsistency so egregious those who display this should be disbelieved (in general) when they defile my faith.

Charity, TOm
Lots of big words. I don’t follow the thinking here. The first sentence is an incomplete sentence, so we are left without knowing what “if” is about.

The problem is that it is ridiculous to think that something made of matter can be infinite. Does God’s body, which is made of atoms and molecules, take up all of space? Which is what it would have to do to be infinite. The idea is ridiculous.

Another ridiculous idea is that someone can rise from the dead. I agree, it’s all ridiculous. To those who walk by sight.

Now, about defiling one’s faith, it seems that is not in my corner. On my part, I simply explained how Jesus, even though of flesh and blood, could nevertheless be infinite from a Catholic and Protestant perspective. Not his fleshly part made of matter, but his divine nature.

How is that defiling your faith? You defiled mine by using the word ridiculous. I was not hostile in any way in my post, simply explaining.
 
I would suggest that if a Catholic can believe that Christ is a single person with a dual nature. One nature is finite, glorified, and distributed without end; and the other nature is infinite. Then, it boarders on ridiculous to suggest, “To a Christian, a God of flesh and bone would not be infinite.”

In fact, not only is it ridiculous, I would suggest it evidence a profound inconsistency so egregious those who display this should be disbelieved (in general) when they defile my faith.

Charity, TOm
Your valediction was ironic…again
 
The problem is that it is ridiculous to think that something made of matter can be infinite. Does God’s body, which is made of atoms and molecules, take up all of space? Which is what it would have to do to be infinite. The idea is ridiculous.
The problem is that LDS do not believe that a body of flesh and bones is infinite. God (Father or Son) having a body does not preclude God being infinite and eternal.
LDS absolutely believe “God is spirit.” LDS absolutely believe God has a body of flesh and bones.
Another ridiculous idea is that someone can rise from the dead. I agree, it’s all ridiculous. To those who walk by sight.
Of course we both believe that Christ rose from the dead.
Now, about defiling one’s faith, it seems that is not in my corner. On my part, I simply explained how Jesus, even though of flesh and blood, could nevertheless be infinite from a Catholic and Protestant perspective. Not his fleshly part made of matter, but his divine nature.

How is that defiling your faith? You defiled mine by using the word ridiculous. I was not hostile in any way in my post, simply explaining.
Mackbrislawn,
First, let me apologize in that I was not trying to direct those words to you. I am sorry. I directed the words “defile my faith” to the person who said, “To a Christian, a God of flesh and bone would not be infinite.” That was not you, and I am sorry it came across as you.
Second, I did not call your faith ridiculous in my response. There are things I am find problematic within Catholicism, but if you follow my posts, I do not think I call your faith ridiculous (and I didn’t in this post).
What I called ridiculous was a Catholic who believed x,y, and z (the beliefs you claim correctly are Catholic beliefs) saying “To a Christian, a God of flesh and bone would not be infinite.”

Based on what you know about the infinite and eternal Jesus Christ, the God/man, do you see how I would find it a very poor and unfair statement for a Catholic suggest that “"To a Christian, a God of flesh and bone would not be infinite?”

I hope that makes sense. And sorry again.
Charity, TOm
 
It might help for you to recognize that the ONENESS of God was not the primary concern at Nicea. Nicea was concerned with the divinity of Christ. Homoousian/Consubstantial in the generic or numeric sense preserved the divinity of Christ in the minds of the Father’s at Nicea. They did not all understand the word the same, but those who embraced the definition understood that Christ was divine.
Yes, the uncreated, eternal, oneness of God was a given from the beginning of Christianity. The one God with his own nature which was not of man. Note this is not the God of Mormonism as described in posts #849 and #851; a creature who is not one.

Yes, the Council described the divinity of Christ while rejecting Arianism. The words co-substantation or consubstantial were NEVER used at the Council, because Greek was the language of the Church in the 4th century; a fact you continue to ignore. But ignoring facts is something a Mormon apologist must do.

Yes, homoousios was defined and used at the Council to describe Christ’s divinity.
P.S. I have no idea why you want me to define generic and numeric in my own words. My words would be,
Homoousian/consubstantial in the numeric sense is ONE Being. It is modalism (or it is “incomprehensible to us” how it is not modalism).
Homoousian/consubstantial in the generic sense is one nature/species. Eusebius of Caesarea after Nicea wrote his church and explained that human fathers and sons were homoousian with one another. This is the generic sense. Catholic scholars (other than the minority who are Social Trinitarians like me) call this tritheism.
I asked you to define your terms, so I know what you mean when you use them. Now, I know and don’t have to guess.

First, Greek was the language of the 4th century church, so consubstantial was never used. And after pointing this out to you several times, you continue in this sophistry. I will no longer respond to any of your future posts on this thread which continue this dishonesty.

Second, the word homoousian means one supporting the term homoousios at the Council.

Third, you present a false dilemma. You claim there are only two senses to the word homoousios. There are more than two in practice. Your “two” are actually the two extremes of a spectrum. When two things are called “the same/homo” it can mean many things. Your bouncing between the two extremes is the source of the confusion you have, or have caused. Tritheism was never a possible meaning because Christians believe in one God, and modalism was already declared a heresy. So both extremes were never possible as a definition for homoousios at the Council or ever.

One could say, “all that is not Tritheism is numeric” or one could say, “all that is not modalism is generic.” I think most Catholics are in the second camp. I can imagine a polytheist would be comfortable in the first camp.

The Christian Church defined homoousios in the “generic” sense; not modalism. But with an understanding there is one being; not tritheism. And not in the “numeric” sense; modalism. Three persons and one being. A rational mystery, because there is no other being who is God. As Bryan Cross would say, it is an “incomprehensible unity.”

At the close of the 4th century, the Bible was translated to Latin, which started the shift to Latin in the western church.

By the sixth century, Latin was the language of the western Church and the understanding of homoousios was clear by then, and consubstantiálem was used as the Latin equivalent. Consubstantial is the English equivalent dated to the 14th century, so it was not in use in the 4th century. Of course the word that started it all was “co-substantation” which is an English word with no apparent meaning dating back to the beginning of the this month. It wasn’t used at the Council either.
 
Your valediction was ironic…again
I see your point.
I should do better here and at other times I should do much better.
I actually had positive feelings about Mackbrislawn.
But truth be told, I have probably crossed the line in responses to you (and in this case about you). I am sorry.
Charity (or I hope to have charity), TOm
 
Yes, the Council described the divinity of Christ while rejecting Arianism. The words co-substantation or consubstantial were NEVER used at the Council, because Greek was the language of the Church in the 4th century; a fact you continue to ignore. But ignoring facts is something a Mormon apologist must do.
Consubstantial is Latin for Homoousian. The Creeds are translated into Latin and the word Consubstantial is used. And the word Consubstantial is used in two sense just like homoousian.
Third, you present a false dilemma. You claim there are only two senses to the word homoousios. There are more than two in practice. Your “two” are actually the two extremes of a spectrum.
Before you said:
Clearly I said Consubstantial has one meaning.
In post #888 and #889, I showed clearly that Consubstantial (and/or Homoousian) is embraced in the numeric sense by modern Catholics when referring to God the Father and God the Son AND in the generic sense when referring to God the Son and mankind. This is the Latin as translated in the Chalcedon definition.
Can you admit that Consubstantial has two meanings now?
First, Greek was the language of the 4th century church, so consubstantial was never used. And after pointing this out to you several times, you continue in this sophistry. I will no longer respond to any of your future posts on this thread which continue this dishonesty.
It might be true that the third, materialistic meaning of homoousian NEVER translated into the Latin “Consubstantial.” But, the two other meanings (“numeric” and “generic”) are part of the modern Catholic understanding of the Latin “Consubstantial.” Nothing dishonest about this, it is just true. And again should be obvious from post #888 and #889.
Third, you present a false dilemma. You claim there are only two senses to the word homoousios. There are more than two in practice. Your “two” are actually the two extremes of a spectrum. When two things are called “the same/homo” it can mean many things. Your bouncing between the two extremes is the source of the confusion you have, or have caused. Tritheism was never a possible meaning because Christians believe in one God, and modalism was already declared a heresy. So both extremes were never possible as a definition for homoousios at the Council or ever.
You are just wrong here. You may wish there was some middle ground between generic and numeric identity, but there is not. I would be interested in seeing some Catholic or Protestant scholar advocating for some middle ground between numeric and generic one substanceness.
In post #888 and #889 I showed where you call the modern Catholic position “modalism” AND that you embrace the semi-Arian position of Eusebius.
The Christian Church defined homoousios in the “generic” sense; not modalism. But with an understanding there is one being; not tritheism. And not in the “numeric” sense; modalism. Three persons and one being. A rational mystery, because there is no other being who is God. As Bryan Cross would say, it is an “incomprehensible unity.”
He also said it was “unintelligible to us.” And Father Davis, Dr. Cross, and Athanasius all embraced homoousian (and consubstantial) in the numeric sense. Do you still believe they are modalists or are you joining them in the “unintelligible to us” position.
By the sixth century, Latin was the language of the western Church and the understanding of homoousios was clear by then, and consubstantiálem was used as the Latin equivalent. Consubstantial is the English equivalent dated to the 14th century, so it was not in use in the 4th century.
Do you now admit that “consubstantial” had two meanings?
Do you now retract your statement:
And we all agree that to understand it in the numeric sense is modalism; a heresy. And heresies are not what we believe.
Do you retract this?

Stephen,
I regularly think you do not respond to points I make. I never claim you are lying or intentionally deceiving when you do this. I often feel you are evading tough truths, but perhaps I should not. I also have negative feelings when you continually claim I am lying, being dishonest. Still, I do need find more positive things to say. I will try.
Charity, TOm

P.S. I still hope you will acknowledge what I think might be a CHANGE in your position from before my posts #888 and #889 to your post here. Does Consubstantial have two meanings? Do you still claim those who embrace consubstantial (and homoousian) in the numeric sense are modalist? Or do you now follow Dr. Cross into the position that is “unintelligible to us?”
 
The problem is that LDS do not believe that a body of flesh and bones is infinite. God (Father or Son) having a body does not preclude God being infinite and eternal.
LDS absolutely believe “God is spirit.” LDS absolutely believe God has a body of flesh and bones.
 
I suppose when a Catholic or Protestant hears that God is flesh and bones (ie, made of matter) they think immediately of a finite amount of matter occupying a finite amount of space. How can that be infinite? But, if God is spirit, Catholics and Protestants can understood that the spirit part can be infinite. But is that what you mean?
Now, what is meant by “God is spirit”? On another thread, JaneDoe seemed to be vehement that “God is spirit” did not mean “God is a spirit.” Does God have a spirit component? Is that part infinite?
I am not sure how Jane phrased it, but I would say that “God is spirit,” but God is not “only Spirit.” And God is omnipresent through His spirit (which is not the same as the third person, the Holy Ghost).
They also have a hard time thinking of how flesh and bones, atoms and molecules, can be eternal, since they think of the material world being made a finite time ago. But, again, is that what is meant?
If I did not want to create controversy here, I would say that God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit are not “eternally embodied” in LDS thought. LDS believe God the Son became embodied through the Virgin Mary. When LDS THEORIZE on the body of God the Father (which is not something that happens regularly), we typically recognize that God the Father became embodied similarly to Christ.
Less wisely, I will acknowledge two things. LDS believe that matter is eternal. I would say that there was “unformed matter” eternally. LDS typically reject creation ex nihilo. And, there is a sense not well understood in which LDS call Spirit “more refined matter.” I am quite convinced this does not preclude omnipresence as LDS embrace divine omniprensence, and there is really very little THEORIZING upon this that I have ever read.
The three volume set Exploring Mormon Thought IMO goes much farther towards systematizing LDS thought than any treatment before or after. I think Ostler deals with “unformed matter,” “omnipresence,” and many things. But, I do not remember Ostler talking about spirit as “more refined matter.” I think it likely it is there and I just do not remember.
Thanks, Tom. Actually I have not followed all the debate so I commented on only a small part of it. Maybe that’s why I am not sure I entirely know what you mean. Is it that since Catholic beliefs of x, y, and z are odd and irrational, then it is unfair for Catholics to characterize Mormon beliefs that a God of flesh and bone can be infinite as also odd and irrational?
No, it is that the single person, the God/man, Jesus Christ has a body of flesh and bones that is His body AND yet He is also infinite and eternal. I find this to be specifically similar to the LDS position being criticized (again not by you).
I am aware of the Chalcedon definition and the dual nature. LDS do not postulate a dual nature in our thought (by this I mean not a divine and human nature, we acknowledge flesh and spirit. Also LDS generally have a kenotic Christology). As I mentioned earlier in this thread Groh and Gregg in Early Arianism: A View of Salvation pointed to aspects of the divine characteristics accepted by Arians (and orthodox) and how Nicea (and really the first 4-7 councils) had to align these with the man Jesus Christ who hungered and slept (and was embodied).
For myself, I’m not too interested in debate in this case, but to understand one another.
You are better than I am. I should acknowledge that my valediction is often just something I strive for rather than something I achieve.
Charity, TOm
 
Yes, the Council described the divinity of Christ while rejecting Arianism. The words co-substantation or consubstantial were NEVER used at the Council, because Greek was the language of the Church in the 4th century; a fact you continue to ignore. But ignoring facts is something a Mormon apologist must do.

Yes, homoousios was defined and used at the Council to describe Christ’s divinity.

By the sixth century, Latin was the language of the western Church and the understanding of homoousios was clear by then, and consubstantiálem was used as the Latin equivalent. Consubstantial is the English equivalent dated to the 14th century, so it was not in use in the 4th century. Of course the word that started it all was “co-substantation” which is an English word with no apparent meaning dating back to the beginning of the this month. It wasn’t used at the Council either.
Consubstantial is Latin for Homoousian. The Creeds are translated into Latin and the word Consubstantial is used.
No, when the Creed was translated into Latin consubstantiálem was used. When the Creed was translated in English consubstantial was used.
Just for fun: some translations of the Creed.

Italian: generato, non creato, della stessa sostanza del Padre; generated, not created, same substance as the Father

Greek: Γεννηθέντα, ου ποιηθέντα, ομοούσιον τω Πατρί; begotten, not created, of one essence with the Father

German: gezeugt, nicht geschaffen, eines Wesens mit dem Vater; begotten, not made , of one being with the Father

French: Engendré, non pas créé, de même nature que le Père; generated, not made, the same nature as the Father
Yes, the Creeds were translated, but homoousios was used in the 4th century not co-substantation or consubstantial.
 
P.S. I have no idea why you want me to define generic and numeric in my own words. My words would be,
Homoousian/consubstantial in the numeric sense is ONE Being. ** It is modalism** (or it is “incomprehensible to us” how it is not modalism).
Homoousian/consubstantial in the generic sense is one nature/species. Eusebius of Caesarea after Nicea wrote his church and explained that human fathers and sons were homoousian with one another. This is the generic sense. Catholic scholars (other than the minority who are Social Trinitarians like me)** call this tritheism**.
I asked you to define your terms, so I know what you mean when you use them. Now, I know and don’t have to guess.

Third, you present a false dilemma. You claim there are only two senses to the word homoousios. There are more than two in practice. Your “two” are actually the two extremes of a spectrum. When two things are called “the same/homo” it can mean many things. Your bouncing between the two extremes is the source of the confusion you have, or have caused. Tritheism was never a possible meaning because Christians believe in one God, and modalism was already declared a heresy. So both extremes were never possible as a definition for homoousios at the Council or ever.

One could say, “all that is not Tritheism is numeric” or one could say, “all that is not modalism is generic.” I think most Catholics are in the second camp. I can imagine a polytheist would be comfortable in the first camp.
You are just wrong here. You may wish there was some middle ground between generic and numeric identity, but there is not.
The middle ground:
The Christian Church defined homoousios in the “generic” sense; not modalism. But with an understanding there is one being; not tritheism. And not in the “numeric” sense; modalism. Three persons and one being. A rational mystery, because there is no other being who is God.
And Father Davis, Dr. Cross, and Athanasius all embraced homoousian (and consubstantial) in the numeric sense.
No, they are not modalists. All that is not modalist is “generic.”
 
It might help for you to recognize that the ONENESS of God was not the primary concern at Nicea. Nicea was concerned with the divinity of Christ. Homoousian/Consubstantial in the generic or numeric sense preserved the divinity of Christ in the minds of the Father’s at Nicea. They did not all understand the word the same, but those who embraced the definition understood that Christ was divine.
Yes, the uncreated, eternal, oneness of God was a given from the beginning of Christianity. The one God with his own nature which was not of man. Note this is not the God of Mormonism as described in posts #849 and #851; a creature who is not one.
In response to the subject of the thread:
 
No, when the Creed was translated into Latin consubstantiálem was used. When the Creed was translated in English consubstantial was used.

Yes, the Creeds were translated, but homoousios was used in the 4th century not co-substantation or consubstantial.
Stephen,
I was wrong. Consubstantial is English for the Latin word consubstantiálem (I assume, my Greek is minuscule and my Latin is slightly less - fortunately Latin and English especially in theological vocabulary are frequently cognates).
The Catholic Church uses Latin partially because it is a dead language so meanings do not shift as much as they do in a living language. The English Consubstantial undergoes very little shift due to its very specific linkage to the Latin.
Are you suggesting that consubstantial (English) does not have the theological meanings consubstantiálem (Latin) or are you just helping me to be more correct?
I will correct two things that I still think you should reply to.
  1. You stated:
Clearly I said Consubstantial has one meaning.
As shown mostly in post #888 and #889, Homoousian(Greek-ish)/Consubstantiálem(Latin)/Consubstantial(English) have 2 meanings within modern Catholicism. They do not have just one. Can you admit this and correct your previous statement?
2. You stated:
And we all agree that to understand it in the numeric sense is modalism; a heresy. And heresies are not what we believe.
As clearly shown in post #888 and #889 Catholic scholars Dr. Cross and Father Davis (together with JND Kelley, Athanasius, and numerous other scholars) believe the numeric sense for Homoousian(Greek-ish)/Consubstantiálem(Latin)/Consubstantial(English) is the proper understanding when referring to the one-substantce-ness of God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit.
Where you wrong when you claimed Dr Cross and Father Davis embraced this term in the generic sense?
Where you wrong when you claimed the numeric sense entails modalism?


I was wrong to say “consubstantial” was Latin. It is English. I will try to be more precise in the future. Thank you for correcting me.
Charity, TOm
 
The way I understand it is, human nature is one thing and divine nature is another. In other words Tom you’re looking through the wrong end of the telescope. Homoousios is straightforward, same being/nature/substance. It doesn’t mean two different natures/beings/substances are the same as each other.
 
The way I understand it is, human nature is one thing and divine nature is another. In other words Tom you’re looking through the wrong end of the telescope. Homoousios is straightforward, same being/nature/substance. It doesn’t mean two different natures/beings/substances are the same as each other.
EXACTLY. And I think Stephen is making perfect sense and is in line with orthodox Catholic thought on the matter.

But we know we must go down this rabbit hole periodically, which is why I don’t bother anymore ;).
 
The way I understand it is, human nature is one thing and divine nature is another. In other words Tom you’re looking through the wrong end of the telescope. Homoousios is straightforward, same being/nature/substance. It doesn’t mean two different natures/beings/substances are the same as each other.
I think I have made it very clear that Catholic scholarship supports my position on TWO senses of the word. And that Stephen claimed the sense Catholic scholars embrace for God the Father and God the Son is modalism.

I have said nothing about Catholics claiming human substance and divine substance where the same thing.

Oh, and while you were not the Catholic who denied dogma due to not understanding consubstantial on this thread (that was someone else), I think it was you on a previous thread. If you disagree, I can search for it, but Catholics (even those who post againts my faith on Catholic Answers) regularly misunderstand consubstatial.

Charity, TOm
 
I had to have Tom define his terms before I understood his false dilemma; it must be this or that. But I think HojaVerde picked on it waaay before I did.
Now, I understand what you mean when using numerical and generic identity.

I think you are right that “numerical identity”, as explained that way, leads to modalism, and we consider that a heresy. And that you are right that “generic identity”, explained in that way, leads to tritheism, and we, as well, consider that a heresy.

But the two are incorrect to the catholic understanding of the Trinity, so that, I refuse both of them.
👍

I just tried to point out in my post #907 that it doesn’t make any sense to claim the Catholic Church would endorse a heresy. The Church found middle ground and avoided both of the heresies Tom claims “Catholic scholars” believe.
 
The one question I have is: Does the LDS church believe that God the Father was once a man on another planet?
 
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