C
Cantankersaurus
Guest
Some believe that religion is a major cause of violence worldwide.
Based on UN data, there’s a small positive linear correlation between homicide rates and religion by country: r = 0.25:
(Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.)
(It was easier for me to find “irreligion” data than try to look for data on all religions. The coefficient was actually -0.25 for irreligion, I just removed the double negative. Venezuela is cut off at 56 homicides per 100,000 citizens and 15% irreligious.) List of countries by irreligion - Wikipedia, List of countries by intentional homicide rate - Wikipedia
But I think arguing that religion causes this is too big of a jump. Here’s my case: poverty correlates strongly with both religion and violence. So if religion causes violence, you would expect that religion would correlate even more strongly with violence than poverty, considering religious people are already poor. But the opposite happens: the correlation between poverty and violence weakens as religion increases. Religious poor people are less violent than secular poor people. To me this is a good indication that the 0.25 correlation is just related to poverty, not religion itself.
In the same way, although there’s a positive correlation between drowning deaths and ice cream sales by time of year, the two are unrelated: the correlation is a result of the strong relationship both drowning and ice cream have with hot seasons.
There are other kind of evils than homicide—I used homicide both because it’s the most serious violent act and because the correlation between religion and crime in general is negative: Statistical correlations of criminal behaviour - Wikipedia. Filtering for homicides puts religion in a worse light; this way I can’t be accused of choosing a crime that fits my narrative.
What do you guys think–if you agree, should I make this argument differently? If you disagree or you’re skeptical please share!
Based on UN data, there’s a small positive linear correlation between homicide rates and religion by country: r = 0.25:
(Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.)
(It was easier for me to find “irreligion” data than try to look for data on all religions. The coefficient was actually -0.25 for irreligion, I just removed the double negative. Venezuela is cut off at 56 homicides per 100,000 citizens and 15% irreligious.) List of countries by irreligion - Wikipedia, List of countries by intentional homicide rate - Wikipedia
But I think arguing that religion causes this is too big of a jump. Here’s my case: poverty correlates strongly with both religion and violence. So if religion causes violence, you would expect that religion would correlate even more strongly with violence than poverty, considering religious people are already poor. But the opposite happens: the correlation between poverty and violence weakens as religion increases. Religious poor people are less violent than secular poor people. To me this is a good indication that the 0.25 correlation is just related to poverty, not religion itself.
In the same way, although there’s a positive correlation between drowning deaths and ice cream sales by time of year, the two are unrelated: the correlation is a result of the strong relationship both drowning and ice cream have with hot seasons.
There are other kind of evils than homicide—I used homicide both because it’s the most serious violent act and because the correlation between religion and crime in general is negative: Statistical correlations of criminal behaviour - Wikipedia. Filtering for homicides puts religion in a worse light; this way I can’t be accused of choosing a crime that fits my narrative.
What do you guys think–if you agree, should I make this argument differently? If you disagree or you’re skeptical please share!