I wrote:
LeFebvre reacted to heretics and responded to the requests of the faithful. An apostolic visit from Rome where the inspectors started to provoke LeFebvre by casting doubt on the historicity of the Resurrection was just one of those actions that caused a reaction.
The real question is why didn’t Paul VI and JPII champion him instead of feeding him to the sharks?
Catharina responded:
I could guess that his disobedience was the deciding factor.
That would be a really really bad guess. A horrible guess actually. You are saying that archbishop LeFebvre should have agreed with the Apostolic visitors who denied the historical reality of the Resurrection, supported the ordination of married men and the idea that truth changes with the times. If you think that is the proper response of a Catholic, then you have a funny idea about Catholicism.
Is there some part of this conclusion that you don’t understand?
I understand it perfectly. I disagree with his use of the term “schism” referring to LeFebvre. I assume it was due to the political climate in the Vatican at the time. But, do you admit the premise? Do you admit what then Cardinal Ratzinger pointed out? That the reaction of LeFebvre was due to actions within the Church structure. More willfull ignorance on your part it seems.
“If we succeed in pointing out …” " … When things get to this point, faith is left behind, because faith really consists in the fact that I am committing myself to the truth so far as it is known," yep, I get it - the truth wins, successfully pointed out to me.
No. It’s painfully obvious that you don’t “get it” at all. Here we are 19 years later and the Holy Father is still talking about the “hermenuetic of rupture” (which means “schism” incidentally) not about the SSPX, but about the conciliar Church.
Who was telling the truth? What did LeFebvre point out? That the TLM was never abrogated legally. What did the Holy Father just point out in Summorum Pontificum? That the TLM was never legally abrogated. The truth does win. LeFebvre was correct.
Not to Fellay, it seems. I give zero credence to Fellay.
Why not? You have stated that you purposely remain willfully ignorant about Fellay. Yet you come to conclusions about Fellay. How smart is that? It seems you know nothing of Fellay except recycled anti-SSPX apologists that are only slightly less ignorant on the subject than you are. It’s just like Bishop Sheen used to say about the anti-Catholics. “I don’t know ten people who hate the Catholic Church, but I know hundreds who hate** what they think **the Catholic Church is.”
The attitude of the standard anti-SSPXer is: “I don’t need to know the facts. I know it all already. No one can tell me anything. I don’t need to learn anything and I don’t want to hear another side for more information. Not even to teach the person with an opposing position their error. I’m here to pound the table and shout down the opposition”
The man has been excommunicated. Is there something about that fact that you find uncertain.
Yes. The validity of the “excommunication.” You seem to think that an excommunication is dogma instead of being either just, unjust or invalid. The Catholic Church does teach that.
I wrote:
You’ll notice the admission on then Cardinal-Ratzinger’s part is that the problem with LeFebvre is the problem the rest of the Church is suffering with. Earlier in the statement, he admits that what he percieves to be LeFebvre’s overreaction was provoked by liberals who were not properly disciplined.
The “rest of the Church” remained obedient. It’s that simple.
First, on the facts you are wrong. The “rest of the Church” did not remain obedient. Traditionalists stayed obedient to the Truth, the SSPX, the SSJV and others. The liberal and conservative bishops all disobeyed the documents of Vatican II and the Popes did virtually nothing to stop them but instead proceeded to persecute traditionalists and deny there was a crisis at all.
For your position to be accurate you would have to be saying that there is no liturgical abuse, not heterodoxy, no liberal dissention. C’mon.
Secondly, does not the Catholic Church teach that obedience is subordinate to justice? Doesn’t St. Thomas distinguish between perfect, true and false obedience? Doesn’t Vatican I call for “true” obedience? Don’t you know that Popes can abuse their power?
I’ll be curious as to whether you’ll actually answer the questions I’ve presented. Most people who are both ignorant of and against the SSPX (the definition of prejudice) avoid answering them. Actually all of them avoid answering them.