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joclucsylv
Guest
Thanks!
you would have to ask her what scripture she is usingI am curious, because a friend of mine says that she has biblical reasons to get divorced because her husband committed adultry. Where would the scripture be on this?? Thank you!!!
Jesus said, "because of the hardness of our hearts, MOSES permitted it, but from the beginning it was not so."I would guess she is referring to the verse (not sure what ones) that says something along the lines of adultry being grounds for a divorce. The Lord replies something to the effect that it is because of the hardness of our hearts that** he **allows divorce for that reason, but from the beginning it wasn’t so, or something to that effect.
Not a problem to most wives, when their husbands stray.That’s probably because of how the Bible she uses translates Matthew 19:9:
“I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for adultery, and marries another woman commits adultery”
The problem is the word “porneia” has a spectrum of meanings.
She can be divorced for any reason. Divorce is a secular civil procedure and has no ecclesiatical standing. So a person can end a marriage according to the civil law but they are still married according to the church. So she can be divorced BUT she cannot remarry as long as her husband is alive…I am curious, because a friend of mine says that she has biblical reasons to get divorced because her husband committed adultry. Where would the scripture be on this?? Thank you!!!
BTW I notice that many of the replies mention Church doctrine and catechisms. If your friend is Roman Catholic then those replies may be of use. My reply (below) is in answer to your question: “biblical reasons”.Thanks!
No where. Jesus at no time stated that sexual immorality (adultery) was the ONLY “just-cause” basis for a morally lawful divorce.I am curious, because a friend of mine says that she has biblical reasons to get divorced because her husband committed adultry. Where would the scripture be on this?? Thank you!!!
"Some Pharisees came to put him to the test. They asked, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any reason at all?
An excellent catch! It’s always best to ‘let the Bible teach the Bible’. Ezra’s day was indeed a special situation. The Law discouraged Jews from marrying outside the faith, but in such cases the outside spouse was to ‘convert’. This had not been done; the foreign wives were continuing their false worship. (Remember what happened to Solomon?) Other conditions prevailed also. So, with Yahweh’s approval, Ezra and the men acted as indicated. BTW they had to send back the wives with adequate financial provision.Today I was reading the last chapter of Ezra, and many men in Israel had taken wives from other peoples. God was angry about that; a gathering was called and all of the men who had taken wives were named. This is what they agreed to do:
19 And they gave their hands to put away their wives, and to offer for their offence a ram of the flock.
furthermore …
44 All these had taken strange wives, and there were among them women that had borne children.
I’m not making a case “for” divorce by any means, but the OP asked about Biblical cases for divorce and it appears this was one instance. However, in the NT 1 Cor 7 we know:
14 For the unbelieving husband has been sanctified through his wife, and the unbelieving wife has been sanctified through her believing husband. Otherwise your children would be unclean, but as it is, they are holy.
15 But if the unbeliever leaves, let it be so. The brother or the sister is not bound in such circumstances; God has called us to live in peace.
I’m not certain in the Ezra passage whether the foreign wives were considered to be “unbelievers,” or if those marriages were considered to be adultery since to the Jews, marrying outside the tribes was the “real” definition of adultery - if something is adulterated, it is mixed in with impurities