smelton:
I appreciate the response. I anticipated it not to be a true reflection of your faith but was curious. If someone would could you explain to me the biblical basis and logic behind confession to a priest. I have always been a little baffeled by this and would like to hear the reasoning behind it.
James tells us that we should confess our sins to one another, right? (James 5:16) So that means that in the Church, we confess not just to God alone, but “to the Church.” For practical purposes, we limit this to confession to a priest because priests receive the faculty of “binding and loosing” in matters of conscience from the bishop, who receives it through the laying on of hands at his consecration as bishop. The specific power to forgive sins is God-breathed by Jesus upon the Apostles on Easter night (Jn 20:22-23): And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained.”
The Greek here is straightforward and forceful. Attempts to sidestep this by saying that Jesus is telling the Apostles that if they preach that God forgives sins, and people believe them, then their sins wll be forgiven are squirrely and just plain deceptive. Why would he need to breathe the charism into them for *that? *A lot of Protestants interpret the Catholic view as meaning that forgivenss is taken out of God’s hands and placed into the hands of mere men. Nothing could be further from the truth. ONLY God forgives sins: the Priest acts “in persona Christi” but fully under the authority of Christ.
Since the forgiveness of sins is the core of the Gospel message, the Magisterium of the Catholic Church interprets this verse as meaning that Jesus has given us this concrete means and assurance of forgiveness of post-baptismal sin. (This is one of the very few biblical passages about which the Church has made a formal interpretation, which is binding on the faithful – there are fewer than a dozen). The Church understands this passage (in light of James 15:16) to mean that a confession is necessary: otherwise, how would the priest know what to forgive?
The earliest records of the subapostolic Church (from the middle of the second centry) record the practice of confession – usually before the entire congregation ( :bigyikes: we’re kind of relieved that we don’t have to do that any more) but always in the presence of the presbyter:
In 2 Cor 2:10, Paul refers to having forgiven the incestuous man “in the person of Christ” (KJV) and later refers to being entrusted with “the ministry of reconciliation” and being “ambassadors for Christ” – IOW: entrusted with
actual powers to forgive and reconcile from the King himself.
There’s more, but this should give you a start.