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DelsonJacobs
Guest
Bravo, Tim.You guys are over-thinking this.
So whatever you wish that men would do to you, do so to them; for this is the law and the prophets. (Matthew 7:12)
The law of love contains all of the Old Law.
And he said to him, "You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind. This is the great and first commandment. And a second is like it, You shall love your neighbor as yourself. On these two commandments depend all the law and the prophets." (Matthew 22:37-40)
The entirety of the Law of Moses is contained in one word - Love.
-Tim-
While this is not actually what the OP’s question was, it does bring out what is most important in the end. There are some unanswered questions, and in the face of having more questions than answers it is always best to stick with what you know.
In this sense the Christian can see themselves as having a part in Christ’s fulfilling the Mosaic Law, even if they are a Gentile, because the Law is fulfilled by serving God and neighbor in love.
The other points are in reference to when is Mosaic Law being discussed and when it is not as the word “law” is often used in the New Testament without an indicator as in the OPs question of 1 John. Not having a definitive answer to this, I can add one more possibility to directly answer the OP: If the traditional author of 1 John is the Beloved Apostle, he may have been speaking in context of the Mosaic Law and his experience as a Jewish Christian in relation to it. If that is the case, then Tim’s excellent answer is applicable for the Gentile Christian in how they apply this to their own circumstances. Either way it the ultimate solution.