Are we required to believe the Fall of Man happened exactly as depicted in Genesis?

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Thanks for the references, had not seen mrca studies done purely statistically vs looking at DNA. Lots of assumptions go into that model.
Regardless, mrca tell us little to nothing about adam and Eve. For example, using the models that give a mrca a time in the past of only a few thousand years, also show that in 10 or 20 thousand years, all of us will likely be a common ancestor to the entire human race.
If that mathematical model us wrong and the geneticists are right in saying the mrca lived 100,000 years ago, then we all have to wait around 250,000 years before it is more likely than not we are all a common ancestor. Regardless, if we have descendents past 3 generations, it’s likely one day each of us will reach that milestone. But none if us will be Adam and Eve.
 
Eve blamed the Serpent. Adam blamed Eve. Technically, Adam blamed God too, “The man said, “The woman you put here with me–she gave me some fruit from the tree, and I ate it.”
 
I accept Church teaching. That was never being questioned. We both see it as disobedience. God told them not to do something and they disobeyed. I contend that it involved the misuse of sex.

It was still an act of disobedience. Every time we sin we’re being disobedient!
Nobody agrees with you.

From Catholic Answers on your question:

“According to the Fathers of the Church and St. Thomas, Adam and Eve did not have intercourse until after the fall. There are precise theological and moral reasons for this teaching, too complex to go into here. The original sin was an act of disobedience followed by Adam’s ignoble blaming of Eve for his sin. Whatever eating the fruit (it was not an apple that was depicted in Genesis) means, it does not mean having intercourse, because that is something God commanded them to do, not something he forbade them to do. The first sin was doing something forbidden, not doing something commanded.”
 
I don’t care :man_shrugging:t2: They did something wrong. If anyone has a better idea, which your source doesn’t, feel free to chime in.
 
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I don’t care :man_shrugging:t2: They did something wrong. If anyone has a better idea, which your source doesn’t, feel free to chime in.
Well I put more store in what the Church and the early Church Fathers say than what your opinion is!!
 
According to the Fathers of the Church and St. Thomas, Adam and Eve did not have intercourse until after the fall.
To be blunt, there are many impure ways to misuse human sexuality that don’t involve direct intercourse.
 
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I think there’s a good way to look at this which harmonizes catholic dogma (monogenism/original sin) and modern scientific evidence. Saint John Paul II emphasized that it is acceptable to believe that the human body evolved by natural processes, but that we must believe that the human soul is a direct creation of God.

I tend to think that the first two humans, biologically speaking, evolved like other life by evolutionary processes. There may even have been a large pool of anatomically modern homo-sapiens who lacked souls, making them not actually human, supposing a soul is necessary to our humanity, which according to catholic doctrine is indeed the case. Perhaps out of this pool of homo-sapiens God elected two individuals, a male and a female, and created and infused into them immortal souls and entered into covenant with them.

The story of the fall, as I believe the catechism explains, depicts actual historical events in figurative language. I doubt the fall concerned literal trees, a snake, and fruit. These images convey the underlying message that our first parents defied God and chose to go their own way, thereby forfeiting the gifts of integrity and sanctifying grace which they had from God.

Since the fall we can imagine that the descendants of these two persons survived while the descendants of the non-ensouled homo-sapiens died out. Hence we are all descended from an original pair and yet this does not conflict with the evidence of population genetics which points to origins from an original pool of perhaps a few thousand.

We can also imagine that Noah’s flood took place a very long time ago, that it was a cataclysmic local flood either in north Africa or the Mediterranean Basin, which wiped out the early and localized human population except for Noah and his family. The purpose of the Ark with the animals would have been to preserve the biological diversity of the environment. It wouldn’t be contrary to Catholic exegetical principles to suppose that the account of the flood employed a good deal of hyperbole to describe an historical cataclysm, enabling us to accept a local event being described in universal terms.

To sum things up, it makes good sense to understand much of the early chapters of Genesis as describing real historical events in figurative language. The creation and the fall especially read this way, and the story of the flood seems to be filled with hyperbole. None of this negates the innerancy or infallibility of sacred scripture. And as Pope Leo XIII said, paraphrasing, we stick to the literal interpretation unless sound reason demands otherwise. With the discoveries of science over the past two centuries I think we are definitely at the point where reason requires us to understand certain components of Genesis as figurative historical accounts, rather than strictly literal.

Of course this is just one interpretation and Catholics are free to believe in a strictly literal interpretation of Genesis as well.
 
This answer was really helpful and was exactly what I was looking for.
 
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