Are we teaching a double standard re: Matthew 5:28?

[thevoiceofone]

I have heard it taught (and said it before, myself) that homosexual desire is not a sin, but only acting upon it is sinful. This came up in another thread, then Matthew 5:28 came to my mind. So everybody doesn’t have to look it up, I will quote: “But I say to you that every one who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.” (RSV). Then our Lord goes on to talk about it being better to pluck out your eye than to let it lead you to sin, and so forth. Methods of interpretation differ, of course, but I have learned (and agree) that our Lord is exagerating a little here to make a point (not that He is nonetheless correct, of course). So, are we perhaps a little misleading, or even wrong, to teach that homosexual desire is not a sin, even if that’s not *exactly *what we’re saying… is that what some one might *think *we are saying? Or, is that desire considered permissable for our homosexual brethren, but not acceptable for us heterosexual folks? Surely, that’s not the case, but I would like to know if anybody can clarify this matter for me. I have always felt the need to confess my own concupiscence to be reconciled to God. I have always been taught that concupiscence was wrong. Are we making an unfair/untrue allowance to homosexuals when we say that sin is occurring only when they act upon it?

Homosexuality is a hot topic these days. I just want to be as clear as possible on what it is we should be saying about it.

Thanks.

 

[bingbang]

I have heard it taught (and said it before, myself) that homosexual desire is not a sin, but only acting upon it is sinful. This came up in another thread, then Matthew 5:28 came to my mind. So everybody doesn’t have to look it up, I will quote: “But I say to you that every one who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.” (RSV). Then our Lord goes on to talk about it being better to pluck out your eye than to let it lead you to sin, and so forth. Methods of interpretation differ, of course, but I have learned (and agree) that our Lord is exagerating a little here to make a point (not that He is nonetheless correct, of course). So, are we perhaps a little misleading, or even wrong, to teach that homosexual desire is not a sin, even if that’s not *exactly *what we’re saying… is that what some one might *think *we are saying? Or, is that desire considered permissable for our homosexual brethren, but not acceptable for us heterosexual folks? Surely, that’s not the case, but I would like to know if anybody can clarify this matter for me. I have always felt the need to confess my own concupiscence to be reconciled to God. I have always been taught that concupiscence was wrong. Are we making an unfair/untrue allowance to homosexuals when we say that sin is occurring only when they act upon it?

Homosexuality is a hot topic these days. I just want to be as clear as possible on what it is we should be saying about it.

Thanks.

I had this question as well. From what I understand, having SSA is not a sin but actually entertaining thoughts or fantasies about it is (just like heterosexual thoughts and fantasies).

 

[Alexander_Smith]

I have heard it taught (and said it before, myself) that homosexual desire is not a sin, but only acting upon it is sinful. This came up in another thread, then Matthew 5:28 came to my mind. So everybody doesn’t have to look it up, I will quote: “But I say to you that every one who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.” (RSV). Then our Lord goes on to talk about it being better to pluck out your eye than to let it lead you to sin, and so forth. Methods of interpretation differ, of course, but I have learned (and agree) that our Lord is exagerating a little here to make a point (not that He is nonetheless correct, of course). So, are we perhaps a little misleading, or even wrong, to teach that homosexual desire is not a sin, even if that’s not *exactly *what we’re saying… is that what some one might *think *we are saying? Or, is that desire considered permissable for our homosexual brethren, but not acceptable for us heterosexual folks? Surely, that’s not the case, but I would like to know if anybody can clarify this matter for me. I have always felt the need to confess my own concupiscence to be reconciled to God. I have always been taught that concupiscence was wrong. Are we making an unfair/untrue allowance to homosexuals when we say that sin is occurring only when they act upon it?

Homosexuality is a hot topic these days. I just want to be as clear as possible on what it is we should be saying about it.

Thanks.

What Our Lord said was literally true. Looking at a woman out of admiration at her beauty is not sinful. What is sinful is looking at a woman, and lusting after her beauty. I’m sure most men have a desire for beautiful women, but that doesn’t mean they have lustful thoughts when they see them. Likewise, if a man desires other men, that is not a sin unless he either gives in to the desire, or harbors lustful thoughts for another man.

 

[Bookcat]

It is important to recall this venerable maxim:

“Always distinguish”

Yes …homosexual thoughts and desires that are consented to …are sins.

But just because someone “has such thoughts or desires” occur to one…does not make it sinful…

A person with homosexual tendencies …who experiences temptations is in a similar boat as a person without such tendencies but who has temptations towards the opposite sex…

 

[thevoiceofone]

Yeah, I basically agree with all of you. That is how I figured the matter must be. Still, I feel like the regular verbage used about this may confuse some, just like all those poor Protestants got confused by so many of Saint Paul’s words. You know? I guess it would be counter-productive to be too detailed on the forefront of a dialogue on the matter, but I think I would say the same as all of you have about one’s inner thoughts (homosexual or otherwise) if a dialogue progressed to that point. I appreciate the feedback.

 

[teachccd]

The keyword in what Jesus says is, “lustfully”. This is where the line is crossed from attraction to entertainment. This is true for both heterosexual and homosexual individuals. It should be quite clear in all Christian realms.

 

[Bookcat]

of course there is also the difference that say a single person may “cultivate” and consent to the non-lustful etc thoughts and be happily attracted toward the opposite sex …

but a person with homosexual tendency is in a different boat…for example they may not “want a romantic relationship” with a person with the same sex…