J
JDaniel
Guest
Awatkins:I’ve been discussing the argument from desire with a few friends of mine. Here is the main outline of the argument that my friend made.
Now, I’ve always thought that premise one is very weak and is only plausible. However, given premise 1, do you think one can criticize premise 2? How would we defend this logically? While it is definitely more plausible prima facie that man desires to be eternally happy. How would we prove it though? Thanks.
- Every natural, innate desire in us corresponds to some real object that can actually satisfy that desire.
- The desire to be eternally happy is a natural desire.
- So, there exists some real object that can actually satisfy the desire for eternal happiness.
I don’t know why you consider premise one to be weak. True, it is intuitive, but it is not weak. What exigency, desired by people, does not point back to a real object? One could begin listing such objects of desire, until one runs out of paper or ink. But, at some point that exercise becomes absurd. And, you’ll know, sooner or later, that you were sent on a goose chase.
Premise two seems pretty solid, too, in my opinion. I know non-religious persons who desire that. Especially when a person is particularly happy, observe their personality. Their desire for happiness to persevere becomes obvious. To observe and say otherwise is nothing more than a baseless assertion.
The conclusion is perhaps more like the Thomistic conclusions. It doesn’t necessarily point to God, per se. But, it points to what we call God - except, with a caveat. That caveat is that it points to a realm of being that only exists at God’s will and under his direct, constant creation. The atheist’s argument, then, is to list other “objects” that supposedly do the same thing, but are not the realm of God.
God bless,
jd