Arsenokoites and scripture

  • Thread starter Thread starter truagape
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
T

truagape

Guest
The Greek word used in 1 Corinthians 6:9 is a masculine noun defined in English as “one who lies with a male as with a female”.
Wolseley made the above quote in another thread and I think its worth investigating. Does anyone else agree?
 
Wolseley made the above quote in another thread and I think its worth investigating. Does anyone else agree?
What is wrong with the post you quoted? It is correct and is one of the verses in Scripture that clearly shows homosexuals will not be saved.
The Greek word “arsenokoitEs” translates in English to “sodomites”.
 
And “sodomites” translates into Greek as what?
I don’t understand the question. If the Greek word “arsenokoitEs” translates into the English word “sodomites” then the reverse is correct or am I missing something? If you have a point please explain it. Incidentally I don’t even understand the point of your original post.
 
I’m not reading another thread. You started this thread but you have not made any point. Either make a point or close the thread.
Fine, then just ignore me. Because every response I have ever made on these forums is making my point. I invite you to read them so that in turn we can have a discussion. I’m not trying to be rude, so if I come across as such I apologize. I just think that it would be wise if you could allow me to answer your question with answers that I have already given.😉
 
Fine, then just ignore me. Because every response I have ever made on these forums is making my point. I invite you to read them so that in turn we can have a discussion. I’m not trying to be rude, so if I come across as such I apologize. I just think that it would be wise if you could allow me to answer your question with answers that I have already given.😉
You don’t start a new thread and then tell people to read another thread to find your answers. That makes no sense at all. Why not just stay in the original thread. The fact that nobody else has joined this thread probably means they all feel the same.
 
It seems (having now read the other thread) that what he’s getting at is this:

The original Hebrew and Greek words referring to homosexual activity do not actually contain a reference to Sodom.

“Sodomite” (and “sodomy,” etc.) are later English words that draw from the story of Sodom and Gomorrah to provide a term for activity that supposedly went on in those cities.

Likewise, when the Bible itself refers to the sin of Sodom, various violations of hospitality or care of the poor are mentioned rather than sexual practices. Even in the Genesis story of Sodom and Gomorrah, the natives’ demand to rape the (seemingly male) angels may be more of a problem because it’s a) rape and b) a violation of hospitality, rather than because same-sex activity would be involved.

Do I have it right, truagape? If so, now that I have laid that out, could you please develop your point directly, instead of forcing other people to tease it out of you?

It’s true that “arsenokoites” does not refer directly to anything involving Sodom, so “sodomite” is merely a colloquial translation. Do you have a position on how “arsenokoites” should properly be translated into English? Is there a greater point to your questions here and in the earlier thread? I am eager to pursue it, if you have one.

Usagi
 
You don’t start a new thread and then tell people to read another thread to find your answers. That makes no sense at all. Why not just stay in the original thread. The fact that nobody else has joined this thread probably means they all feel the same.
:o You’re right, and I’m sorry.
 
So are you saying that “sodomite” is indeed not a proper translation?
As I said, it’s a colloquial translation.

“Sodomite” is an archaic English word referring to a person who engages in sodomy (which can have a fairly broad legal definition but generally includes homosexual activity).

If “arsenokoites” refers to the same group of people, then “sodomite” is not an incorrect translation, though it’s not one many people would use today.

It’s true that the translation “sodomite” might lead some people to believe that the original word (“arsenokoites” in this case) makes some reference to the story of Sodom, when it does not. So that particular word could be misleading, since it refers to a different Bible story that is not referred to by the Greek word being translated.

Recent translations tend to use more precise multi-word phrases to translate “arsenokoites.” So I’d say that “sodomite” is certainly not the best translation. However, understood in the meaning that small-s “sodomite” had at the time the translation was made (that is, not referring strictly to natives of the Biblical Sodom), it’s not an incorrect or improper translation as far as I know.

If you are arguing for an entirely different translation of “arsenokoites” that is incompatible with the colloquial meaning of “sodomite,” then I could be entirely wrong. That’s why I asked you about the translation you would prefer.

Again, please just make your point and stop trying to work around to it by asking leading questions. We can have a more fruitful discussion that way.

Usagi
 
It’s true that the translation “sodomite” might lead some people to believe that the original word (“arsenokoites” in this case) makes some reference to the story of Sodom, when it does not. So that particular word could be misleading, since it refers to a different Bible story that is not referred to by the Greek word being translated.

Usagi
Interestingly the Wyclif translation of 1508 leaves no question as to what their implied reference point is. It presents as it’s translation of arsenokoites, “synn of Sodom.”
 
“Sodomite” is an archaic English word referring to a person who engages in sodomy (which can have a fairly broad legal definition but generally includes homosexual activity).

If “arsenokoites” refers to the same group of people, then “sodomite” is not an incorrect translation, though it’s not one many people would use today.

Usagi
The same group of people who’s sin God himself explicitly defined in Ez. 16:48-50?
 
The same group of people who’s sin God himself explicitly defined in Ez. 16:48-50?
Well, no. The misunderstanding that the sin of Sodom was homosexuality was already present when the English words “sodomy” and “sodomite” were coined. So those words do not just (or even primarily) refer to “citizens of Biblical Sodom.”

And while I don’t know what “arsenokoites” literally means in the Greek, I know the “koites” part refers to sex (coitus).

So if you are arguing based on the “sodomite” translation that “arsenokoites” refers to the real sins of Sodom (inhospitality and unkindness to the poor), I don’t think that’s very plausible.

Usagi
 
So if you are arguing based on the “sodomite” translation that “arsenokoites” refers to the real sins of Sodom (inhospitality and unkindness to the poor), I don’t think that’s very plausible.

Usagi
With everything that I have ever posted on this topic I don’t see how one might even think that that’s what I’m arguing. What I am saying, isn’t that “arsenokoites” refers to the real sins of Sodom. In fact I’m saying the exact opposite: it’s “sodomite” that dosen’t refer to the real sins of Sodom or the real meaning of “arsenokoites”.
 
The misunderstanding that the sin of Sodom was homosexuality was already present when the English words “sodomy” and “sodomite” were coined. Usagi
if this is your premise, then I’m in complete agreement with you. And more importantly, so is the original language of scripture.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top