Moses said, “And what great nation is there, that has statutes and ordinances so righteous as all this law which I set before you this day?” (Deuteronomy 4:8)
It seems to me that Moses’ statement would be true even if some of the statutes and ordinances found in the Law of Moses also appeared in previous Codes, such as the Code of Hammurabi, because Moses is comparing “all this law,” that is, the entirety the Law of Moses, with every other Code in its entirety. In such a comparison, a single less-righteous statute or ordinance in another Code would render that Code less righteous than the Law of Moses even if all the other statutes and ordinances were identical.