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susanlo
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He is writing to the church at Smyrna where there were Docetists in the area. He is talking about this particular type of Gnostic heresy: “Now, He suffered all these things for our sakes, that we might be saved. And He suffered truly, even as also He truly raised up Himself, not, as certain unbelievers maintain, that He only seemed to suffer, as they themselves only seem to be [Christians].” and “For what does any one profit me, if he commends me, but blasphemes my Lord, not confessing that He was [truly] possessed of a body?” newadvent.org/fathers/0109.htmHere is his full quote: Remember he is writing to Christians, and he is not just talking about the Docetists, for he specifically says those who hold heterodox opinions, so in a way he is talking to all Christians through all the centuries, and what does he tell them to take note of, and why is he criticizing those who hold heterodox opinions? He criticizes them for specifically this: they do not confess that the Eucharist is the Flesh of our Savior Jesus Christ,
He seems to be writing about this specific group through the letter. I find it hard to believe that for one section he shifted and didn’t talk about this heresy, but the heresy of denying transubstantiation - especially because as we have stated earlier in this post, no Christian was accused of being a heretic for denying the real presence for the first 1000 years. Did he for one brief section have a prophetic vision about a heresy that would come over a millennium later? But actually, those like Wycliffe who denied transubstantiation and later the Protestants who don’t believe in transubstantiation do not “abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer.” So it couldn’t be them either. Which Christians abstain from the Eucharist and prayer because they deny transubstantiation? I am not aware of who this could be. I think it makes much more sense that those abstaining were the Gnostics who denied Jesus ever had a physical body and did not participate in communion.
part 2.And here is where the confusion comes in. The words symbol and figurative today, do not mean what it meant in the early Church, as attested to by two leading Protestant historians of the last century, notice that they both address specifically the points you brought up about Clement of Alexandria, and Tertullian. Taken from this site: biblicalcatholic.com/apologetics/num29.htm
First Kelly:
to be continued…
Perhaps the terms “symbol” and “figure” had different connotations at that time. I would think if the Greek word “symbol” or “figure” actually meant to transubstantiate, transform, or mutate then the translators should have used those words. But I imagine although the original cultural context was different, “symbol” and “figure” are the closest translations of these words.conclusion.
Now Stone:
So now we know from two leading Protestant scholars that the word figure in the early Church is not how we use figurative today, but more nearly to actual and distinctive nature. This now puts St. Augustine’s passage in a new light.
And this is easy to see that St. Augustine believes in the concept of transubstantiation, when he commands adoration of the Eucharist. Adoration is a form of worship. Unless St. Augustine believes the Eucharist has fully changed and become God, he would be commanding idolatry.