"As From One Principle"

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"With regard to the first matter(the fillioque), they (the Romans) have produced unanimous evidence of the Latin Fathers, and also of Cyril of Alexandria, from the study he made of the gospel of St. John. On the basis of these texts, they have shown that they have not made the Son the cause (aitian) of the Spirit - they know in fact that the Father is the only cause of the Son and the Spirit, the one by begetting and the other by ekporeusis (procession) - but that they have manifested the procession through him (to dia autou proienai) and have thus shown the unity and identity of the essence… "-St. Maximos the Confessor

I at one time struggled with the fillioque, but upon my study of it, the patristic and biblical evidence shows that the fillioque is an orthodox formulation. The above quote from Maximos the Confessor is only a snippet of the extensive witness from the fathers which can testify in favor of the fillioque. The mis-understanding only comes down to the linguistical differences of Latin and Greek,
 
I don’t speak Greek (I can read it, but that’s it), but I dunno Mickey…in my experience, some Latins do misunderstand procession (through) and origination (from), but many do not. The problem is that all of them, regardless of their understanding, must affirm a Creed that has been altered in such a way as to make it really, really sound as though there is some room for non-orthodox interpretations of things. If the Latin church affirms that the Holy Spirit proceeds FROM the Father THROUGH the Son, again, it should say that to its catechumens and leave the Creed alone, as the Creed is far less ambiguous than what the Latins say, even if 100% of them understood it in a non-heretical fashion (which, again, from my own experience is not the case).
 
Dear Steve,

First of all, thank you for your patience in putting up with me and for not calling me a schismatic or an heretic . .😉
No problem. 😉
A:
The whole idea of the connection of Photios and his defence of the original Creed (defended by Rome in the first millennium, notwithstanding local changes) to Arianism and even to schism is quite ridiculous and only serves to show how certain Western theologians, historically and in contemporary times, can easily confuse issues. St Photios affirmed “Through the Son” and so is perfectly Orthodox in this respect,
My understanding was that Photius denied “through the Son”. Am I wrong in that understanding?

Arianism is an attack on the Son as God, equal to the Father except not being the Father. If the spirit isn’t IN the Son from all eternity, and the spirit is only transatory in the Son, or the Son is merely a conduit for the Spirit, then according to the Arians, the Son isn’t really Son of God, NOR is the Son God.
A:
especially in accordance with St Thomas Aquinas. Once again, that blog-website that you refer to is demonstrating its ignorance and tendentious interpretation more akin to 19th century Latin defensiveness and vitriol against the Eastern Church.
I think it nailed the problem. You admit the filioque is true. And it is. You know the CC recites the creed in both expressions of truth. And creeds are to express truth…right? So why all the pushback from the EO? The EO know full well how the CC teaches re: the Father. We both teach the same.
A:
It is also extremely out of touch with contemporary Catholic praxis with respect to Orthodoxy which would never use terms like “schism” in any remote sense or even approximating such in Rome’s current relations with Orthodoxy. That blog is a reactionary one at best and Catholics would do well to stay away from it.
after 1000+ years, the CC and the EO are still arguing over this. You’re not going to complain about a 3 year old article? btw, re: schism the article said, *"*By rigidly ignoring additional truth of the filioque, many Eastern Orthodox come very close to heresy – that is, the sin of a schismatic mentality, which is the sin of rejecting the totality of Truth, and so dividing the unity of the Church" Actually I should say, the EO are arguing over this. The CC recites the creed both ways depending on language used. Which means, it’s the EO who are keeping this going NOT the CC. It’s the EO who are demonstrating intollerance.
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And despite Toledo’s inclusion of the Filioque, Rome’s Popes themselves refused to include it at Rome in any official capacity.
And you saw the explanation…right?
A:
Your statement that Arianism and Nestorianism came out of the East (which I’ve read before in old-fashioned RC apologists) does not mean that the East is somehow more inclined to heresy.
I was just stating a fact.,Those heresies are why the filioque was inserted into the creed
A:
It simply means that theological thought was being carried out in the East at the great centres of Christianity such as Alexandria and Antioch at a time when Rome had ceased to be a force for theology and philosophy. (And how the Filioque could fight Nestorianism - which was a heresy about the union of the Natures of Christ - really defies explanation . . .).
Arianism and Nestorianism, go directly against the son. Neither is compatable with the Son being co equal with the Father.
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And the East combatted Arianism quite successfully without the Filioque, including Semi-Arianism which was St Basil the Great’s specialty. The arguments at Toledo would likewise have sounded foreign to Eastern ears.

That the West was ready to attack the East as possible “schismatics” and “heretics” as that blog of yours is wont to do didn’t square with the Popes of Rome who, for the first millennium refused to change the universal Creed INTENDED TO EXPRESS THE FAITH OF THE UNIVERSAL CHURCH on the Holy Trinity (emphasis definitely mine). So did Pope St Leo IV.
The link I gave was fair and balanced. I don’t agree with that impression you have.
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The Filioque is an orthodox but local Trinitarian expression which is suited to the Western Catholic milieu (although not apparently during the first millennium).
it WAS used for over 500 years before it became a dividing issue between East and West.
A:
And while it was in the East that Arianism arose, it was also there that Arianism was destroyed - not in Toledo or in the West where vestiges of Arianism persisted to the time of St Benedict (which is why he insisted on the Doxology to be said at the end of each psalm in his Rule).

Alex
Don’t be so sure Arianism is destroyed.
 
"With regard to the first matter(the fillioque), they (the Romans) have produced unanimous evidence of the Latin Fathers, and also of Cyril of Alexandria, from the study he made of the gospel of St. John. On the basis of these texts, they have shown that they have not made the Son the cause (aitian) of the Spirit - they know in fact that the Father is the only cause of the Son and the Spirit, the one by begetting and the other by ekporeusis (procession) - but that they have manifested the procession through him (to dia autou proienai) and have thus shown the unity and identity of the essence… "-St. Maximos the Confessor

I at one time struggled with the fillioque, but upon my study of it, the patristic and biblical evidence shows that the fillioque is an orthodox formulation. The above quote from Maximos the Confessor is only a snippet of the extensive witness from the fathers which can testify in favor of the fillioque. The mis-understanding only comes down to the linguistical differences of Latin and Greek,
:cool:
 
Dear Steve,

OK, I agree with what you say! And Photios did affirm “Through the Son” and even moreso than other Easterners.

And I agree that Arianism isn’t as dead as we may think it is!

Cheers,

Alex
 
And I agree as well. But there is more than one way to express orthodox Trinitarianism and the Filioque is (and this is really my only point) a valid, but Western formulation.

The Creed without the Filioque is the property of the entire Church. Neither “From the Son” nor “Through the Son” nor any other formulation which reflects the theology of the “Part” belongs in the Creed which is of the “Whole.”

Both Churches have always agreed that Filiation and Spiration from the Father alone is sufficient to differentiate between the Son and the Spirit in the Trinity and this is also the enduring position of the East which has, nevertheless, allowed for the development of the “Through the Son.”

Alex
 
Folks the filoque and its implication is the reason I made my first post, it is the problems that occur for the East allowing the filoque to be an Orthodox expression of the Truth, becasue impacts substantially upon the Orthodox claim to be the True Church.

To an outsider looking in it is clear that ultimatley the filoque was the one dividing error that prevented reunification as times went by, sure we can add some things in, BUT the implication for the East is that if it divided the Church or essentially caused the heretical position of the Latin Church by the failure to accept the Orhtodoxy of the filoque, then it has exceptional problems that cannot be mitiigated as regards the Easts claims to be True Church based on her Orthodoxy.

That is why there are so many problems, The East is well aware how damaging it is to them if they allow the filoque to be Orthodox in its meaning.

I hae spoken to outsiders and others about this issue previously and it was clear to those people what it means and they were not Orthodox or Catholic.

If your looking for the Truth and then one day you find that the East maintained division principally on a point of contention and they knew such a point was not wrong 1200 years ago, then what do you think that means to outsiders let alone insiders.

That is why all these talks present huge problems, it is akin to the Latin Church coming out tomorrow and saying that infalliability in the the Office of Pope according to the Western criteria is in fact wrong.

Simply cannot be done without significant long term term and fatal damage.

That is why I have no faith in any of these reunificaiton talks, becasue one side is going to have to admit they are not the infalliable Church as they claim to be.
 
I don’t speak Greek (I can read it, but that’s it), but I dunno Mickey…in my experience, some Latins do misunderstand procession (through) and origination (from), but many do not. The problem is that all of them, regardless of their understanding, must affirm a Creed that has been altered in such a way as to make it really, really sound as though there is some room for non-orthodox interpretations of things. If the Latin church affirms that the Holy Spirit proceeds FROM the Father THROUGH the Son, again, it should say that to its catechumens and leave the Creed alone, as the Creed is far less ambiguous than what the Latins say, even if 100% of them understood it in a non-heretical fashion (which, again, from my own experience is not the case).
Great post, dzheremi! You have summmarized the situation perfectly. Some of the Latins are saying that the Son is the origin of the Spirit, and some are saying otherwise. The filioque has caused a vagueness and confusion which seems to allow both positions.
 
Dear Kotim,

Well, I don’t share your take on the matter.

The Filioque has nothing to do with whether a Church is true or not in the first instance, but whether the faith it confesses is true or not/and whether the addition was a necessary one.

And also if the canons and intent of the Councils have been obeyed (with respect to the introduction of something either not intended by the Church in the beginning or else something that COULD be deemed heretical, as with the Filioque to the Greeks).

The Eastern Church, in fact, changed nothing in the original Creed. The Latin Church did. Since Triadology/Trinitarian theology is so central to the Christian faith, any changes to it (as well as to Christology) would be a serious matter.

Again, it was up to the Latin Church to explain why it made the change in a Creed intended to express the universal faith of the entire Catholic Church.

The idea that one at least “must” have the “through the Son” (which is a much superior expression, for a number of reasons, than the West’s Filioque and has none of the confusion the Filioque has) is also a Western view.

The distinction between the Persons based on Filiation and Spiration (from the Father alone) is what the original Creed teaches. We cannot know how the two are distinct, we can only know that they are. Later Western theology felt the need to go further for a number of reasons.

The fact that even here there is the tendency to want to see the Filioque in Eastern thought and Patristics shows that the West has always had the full intention, if not openly seeking to impose the Filioque on the East, but to do so by way of interpreting Eastern Triadology in a way favourable to its own Trinitarian theology. That is both unfair and dishonest.

As for the issue of which is the True Church - I don’t believe that matter comes into play on this particular question. It could, but then we should leave it to the Catholic-Orthodox dialogue which is much more irenical than we can hope to be as Catholics where some of us have a seige mentality when it comes to such issues.

The point on whether this or that Church’s claims to possess the “Truth” on the basis of the Filioque can cut both ways. The Latin West has, in my view, the more demanding burden of “proof” in this department, if you will. It must show why her earlier Popes refused to include it, local variations and teachings notwithstanding, and then why later Popes insisted upon it.

The Eastern Orthodox Catholic Church, before and after the schism between East and West, remained faithful to the original Creed throughout.

Alex
 
Great post, dzheremi! You have summmarized the situation perfectly. Some of the Latins are saying that the Son is the origin of the Spirit, and some are saying otherwise. The filioque has caused a vagueness and confusion which seems to allow both positions.
The Church has never taught the Son is the origin of the HS. NEVER. You know that as an ex Catholic. Everyone on the planet can look it up EASILY as historical fact, that the CC does NOT teach the Son is the origin of the HS. Therefore, where have “some” Latins said the Son is the origin of the HS? Give the post.
 
Originally Posted by steve b forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_khaki/viewpost.gif
The Church has never taught the Son is the origin of the HS.
M:
Wonderful…then it will be absolutely no problem to remove the filioque…problem solved!
Don’t need to. Problem solved!
M:
Originally Posted by steve b forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_khaki/viewpost.gif
Therefore, where have “some” Latins said the Son is the origin of the HS? Give the post.
Like I said, where is your example? I don’t recite the creed in greek.
 
Dear Kotim,

Well, I don’t share your take on the matter.

The Filioque has nothing to do with whether a Church is true or not in the first instance, but whether the faith it confesses is true or not/and whether the addition was a necessary one.
Alex, We know the filioque is true, and it was necessary because of the Arian heresy
A:
And also if the canons and intent of the Councils have been obeyed (with respect to the introduction of something either not intended by the Church in the beginning or else something that COULD be deemed heretical, as with the Filioque to the Greeks).

The Eastern Church, in fact, changed nothing in the original Creed. The Latin Church did. Since Triadology/Trinitarian theology is so central to the Christian faith, any changes to it (as well as to Christology) would be a serious matter.
technically the East DID change the creed. The creed of 325 was not to be modified. No changes were allowed. But the East added “the HS proceeds from the Father” to the creed in 381, and the West added the filioque to the creed in 589. Both ways express truth.

The East didn’t make a stink about the filioque till the schism 500 years after the filioque was included in the creed… The CC made the filioque official at Florence.
A:
Again, it was up to the Latin Church to explain why it made the change in a Creed intended to express the universal faith of the entire Catholic Church.
Buckets of ink are already spilled explaining this.
A:
The idea that one at least “must” have the “through the Son” (which is a much superior expression, for a number of reasons, than the West’s Filioque and has none of the confusion the Filioque has) is also a Western view.
Today, the filioque isn’t confusing to the vast majority of Christianity.
A:
The distinction between the Persons based on Filiation and Spiration (from the Father alone) is what the original Creed teaches. We cannot know how the two are distinct, we can only know that they are. Later Western theology felt the need to go further for a number of reasons.

The fact that even here there is the tendency to want to see the Filioque in Eastern thought and Patristics shows that the West has always had the full intention, if not openly seeking to impose the Filioque on the East, but to do so by way of interpreting Eastern Triadology in a way favourable to its own Trinitarian theology. That is both unfair and dishonest.
Nothing can be fairer that the CC reciting the creed both ways depending on language used.

The CC, = the Latin + Eastern rites. The Latin rite makes up 98% of Catholicism worldwide, and the Eastern rites = 2% of that total. All rites in the CC have equal dignity. No one rite is greater/lesser in dignity. That’s why the 98% doesn’t impose saying the filioque on the 2% who use the Greek translations. That is fair and honest AND I would add, respectful.

Gee wouldn’t it be novel if the EO took that approach.
A:
The point on whether this or that Church’s claims to possess the “Truth” on the basis of the Filioque can cut both ways. The Latin West has, in my view, the more demanding burden of “proof” in this department, if you will. It must show why her earlier Popes refused to include it, local variations and teachings notwithstanding, and then why later Popes insisted upon it.
The fact the CC recites the creed both ways, depending on language, shows the burden is on the EO, who will NOT acknowledge the CC right to recite the filioque with Latin meaning, thereby disrespecting …even to the level of intollerance of the CC and the chair of Peter.
 
… the West added the filioque to the creed in 589. …
The East didn’t make a stink about the filioque till the schism 500 years after the filioque was included in the creed… The CC made the filioque official at Florence. …
The filioque was defined as a dogma in 447 A.D. You are referring the Third Council of Toledo (589) addition to the creed. Actually Photius objected, he was the Patriarch of Constantinople from 858 to 867 and from 877 to 886.

It was Pope Benedict VIII who first included the filioque in the creed used in the Mass at Rome (1024 A.D.).

Also the Councils of Lyons II (1274 A.D.) addressed the issue well before Florence.

mb-soft.com/believe/txn/filioque.htm

ewtn.com/library/ANSWERS/FILIOQUE.HTM

Catechism of the Catholic Church:
247 - The affirmation of the Filioque does not appear in the Creed confessed in 381 at Constantinople. But Pope St. Leo I, following an ancient Latin and Alexandrian tradition, had already confessed it dogmatically in 447, even before Rome, in 451 at the Council of Chalcedon, came to recognize and receive the Symbol of 381. The use of this formula in the Creed was gradually admitted into the Latin liturgy (between the eighth and eleventh centuries). The introduction of the Filioque into the Niceneo-Constantinopolitan Creed by the Latin liturgy constitutes moreover, even today, a point of disagreement with the Orthodox Churches.
 
And I agree as well. But there is more than one way to express orthodox Trinitarianism and the Filioque is (and this is really my only point) a valid, but Western formulation.

The Creed without the Filioque is the property of the entire Church. Neither “From the Son” nor “Through the Son” nor any other formulation which reflects the theology of the “Part” belongs in the Creed which is of the “Whole.”

Both Churches have always agreed that Filiation and Spiration from the Father alone is sufficient to differentiate between the Son and the Spirit in the Trinity and this is also the enduring position of the East which has, nevertheless, allowed for the development of the “Through the Son.”

Alex
Here’s the council of Florence. Look specifically at session 6.
ewtn.com/library/COUNCILS/FLORENCE.HTM

The Greek bishops and theologians attended the council of Ferrara from 9 April 1438. The council was transferred to Florence on 10 January 1439. There, in the session on 6 July 1439, the decree of union with the Greek church was approved. Subsequently decrees of union with the Armenian and Coptic churches were approved. Finally the council was transferred to Rome on 24 February 1443. There other decrees of union with the Bosnians, the Syrians and finally with the Chaldeans and Maronites of Cyprus, were approved. The last session of the council was held on 7 August 1445.
 
Here’s the council of Florence. Look specifically at session 6.
ewtn.com/library/COUNCILS/FLORENCE.HTM

The Greek bishops and theologians attended the council of Ferrara from 9 April 1438. The council was transferred to Florence on 10 January 1439. There, in the session on 6 July 1439, the decree of union with the Greek church was approved. Subsequently decrees of union with the Armenian and Coptic churches were approved. Finally the council was transferred to Rome on 24 February 1443. There other decrees of union with the Bosnians, the Syrians and finally with the Chaldeans and Maronites of Cyprus, were approved. The last session of the council was held on 7 August 1445.
Yes, I’ve loved reading about that Council for some years now.

The decrees of union are things that Rome isn’t proud of today and in fact would rather walk away from. Rome likes to tell Orthodox reps that it “inherited the unias” in a very apologetic tone. Rome tacitly agrees that such unias were based on a model of church unity that no longer applies today.

And since you are such a great partisan of Rome, perhaps you can explain to Eastern Catholics, especially in Eastern Europe, why Rome listens so intently to the ROC and limits the scope of activity of the UGCC IN ITS OWN HOME TERRITORY?

You are being rather ridiculous about this, I’m sorry to say.

The decrees of Florence apply to no one but Rome and the Eastern Catholics who adhered to it. They have no force whatsoever in the East otherwise. They are in fact a Latin set of decrees about how the East should believe and act.

Apart from reactionary RC apologists who still call Orthodox “schismatics” or words that closely resemble that, which serious RC theologian relating to the Orthodox East would accept your conclusions about these unias?

If the RC Church theologians went to the table with Orthodox theologians and said what you have concluded here, that would be the end of the conversation before it began.

Alex
 
Yes, I’ve loved reading about that Council for some years now.

The decrees of union are things that Rome isn’t proud of today and in fact would rather walk away from. Rome likes to tell Orthodox reps that it “inherited the unias” in a very apologetic tone. Rome tacitly agrees that such unias were based on a model of church unity that no longer applies today.
So…where’s the context for your comment?
A:
And since you are such a great partisan of Rome, perhaps you can explain to Eastern Catholics, especially in Eastern Europe, why Rome listens so intently to the ROC and limits the scope of activity of the UGCC IN ITS OWN HOME TERRITORY?
I’m not a mind reader. Do you have specifics?
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You are being rather ridiculous about this, I’m sorry to say.

The decrees of Florence apply to no one but Rome and the Eastern Catholics who adhered to it. They have no force whatsoever in the East otherwise. They are in fact a Latin set of decrees about how the East should believe and act.
You’re proving to be soooooo partisan and prejudiced about this, you can’t read session 6 without severe preconceived biases. The Eastern bishops at Florence were NOT Catholic at the time of the council. They (all the Eastern bishops in attendence) were EO all seperated from Rome. Reread session 6 this time without bias, if you can.
A:
Apart from reactionary RC apologists who still call Orthodox “schismatics” or words that closely resemble that, which serious RC theologian relating to the Orthodox East would accept your conclusions about these unias?
I quoted an article (not reactionary but very fair) ) that said

*"*By rigidly ignoring additional truth of the filioque, many Eastern Orthodox come very close to heresy – that is, the sin of a schismatic mentality, which is the sin of rejecting the totality of Truth, and so dividing the unity of the Church"

That’s not a reactionary statement, but a fair statement. And I gave the full article for context.

The council of Florence saw agreement by all those Eastern churches that were there regarding the truth of the filioque. The Eastern bishops didn’t have to say the filioque, but they know there is no problem with the filioque once properly understood. And they properly understood what was being said. Hence peace. 🙂
A:
If the RC Church theologians went to the table with Orthodox theologians and said what you have concluded here, that would be the end of the conversation before it began.

Alex
Florence is not my conclusion. There was agreement. Orthodox theologians today can’t deny agreement took place at Florence regardless of the fact, when those Eastern bishops got home, the “faithful” as you call them, who weren’t there at Florence, vetoed what the bishops did at Florence. What does that say about the authority of bishops in the minds of the “faithful”?

Re: the EO, what you’re really saying is
  • no ONE speaks for them. and apparantly even bishops can be overruled by joe six pak
  • The EO are NOT one church but a bunch of seperate churches and seperate opinions.
  • Each church makes their own decisions apart from the whole
  • If they were one, they would think as one and act as one. But they don’t.
  • hence if the CC wants to talk to the EO, they have to talk with each one individually and seperately since each one makes their own rules…
You demonstrate with your argument, proof of that.

one could pose the question after reading the results of Florence, who was it that was being led by the HS?
  • The Eastern + Western bishops + pope, who made the agreement at Florence?
  • or the “faithful” who weren’t at the council, who when their bishops returned home, took their bishops and their agreement, and figuratively speaking, threw them under the bus.?
 
Dear Steve,

OK, my tone was unfair, I apologise.

I’ve read the stuff as you’ve indicated.

As for bias - there is no such thing as someone who is without bias.

The Greek bishops who went to Florence with their Emperor’s orders to achieve church unity for the purpose of obtaining Western military aid against the impending Turkish invasion weren’t, one could venture to guess, interested primarily in theological arguments and ecclesial harmony. They weren’t. There was also a Latinizing party among them (just as there is among the Russian Orthodox bishops today), but that could hardly be said to speak for the entire Orthodox Church.

When you say, “Look at this section of that council” and the like, we should remember that history, if I may say so, doesn’t interpret itself. History is about a (hopefully) accurate reporting of events. But the events themselves need to be interpreted. And we interpret events on the basis of what we already believe, our culture etc. So when you say that I or someone else has a bias (and I’m not upset that you say this!), I reply that we all have our biases in interpreting history. It cannot be otherwise.

So unless we agree that we are talking about our individual interpretations of events, we aren’t going to get very far in our discussion here. Florence was not the final word on the Triadological issue that, I will say, continues to severely divide East and West. In fact, it was only the final word for Catholics because it was a Latin interpretation of Eastern Triadology (yes, replete with all kinds of references to scripture and the Fathers), and one that Eastern Catholics accepted.

The point is that once Eastern Catholics accepted that “Through the Son” equals “From the Son,” then what prevented them from just inserting the Filioque and be done with it? The answer is - nothing and many of them soon did, which is why Florence and Lyons before it were no real way to address the Triadologies of East and West.

We need to return to the drawing board and do a study of Eastern Triadology as the East itself represents it and try to see it from “their” perspective, which is what I’m trying to do (thus, the charge of “bias” - again I’m not upset - because you and I look at things through a Western Catholic perspective.} It is wrong of both of us to do that and to interpret Florence as anything more than what it was - a Latin Council setting up Latin a priori’s for a common Triadology that was doomed to failure as such from the beginning.

Why was this so? Rather than accusing the Orthodox with stubbornness etc., why don’t we look at what their teachers say in a dispassionate way to assess where the points of union really are, what is lacking and why the Filioque poses such a problem, not only as a theologoumenon, but also theologically (and it is not only because of the implied notion in the Filioque that there are two Origins for the Spirit i.e. a linguistic issue). Otherwise, we are reduced to name-calling of sorts, telling the Orthodox they have an authority problem, and the Orthodox telling us etc. etc.

Let’s remember that papal authority for the Orthodox (as well as for Catholics) depends on orthodoxy of faith. If the Orthodox believe (and have believed) that Rome fell into a serious Triadological error (and there can be no more central dogma/doctrine/teaching in Christianity than on the Trinity), Rome is definitely “out” and in schism/heresy. That is how serious and important this question is. Catholics sometimes appear to think this is a matter of semantics - we can be reassured that it is most certainly not.

And let’s make no mistake here - upon a hoped for reunion of Churches, both sides will undoubtedly see the other as “returning to the Truth.” We Catholics may think we have a monopoly on Truth. But there are those Orthodox who are likewise willing to even die for it (and who have, at the hands of Catholics e.g. Athanasius of Brest, the Martyrs of Zographou on Mt Athos etc.).

So, lest I be accused of being biased against anything, let me say that I personally accept Florence, I accept that the two Triadologies amount to the same thing (although I believe the Filioque should be dropped by your Particular Church since it is a Latin expression only and does not belong in the Symbol of the Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed which was intended for the entire Church while local theologies, while legitimate, have no place in it).

And I believe that we need to understand Orthodox Triadology on its own terms, without a “zero sum” conclusion being drawn whenever the issues surrounding Florence, Lyons or the other “unias” are brought up. Rome has effectively rejected “unionism” as a legitimate form of church unity and apologizes for them to the Orthodox regularly, as we know. That would also appear to suggest that Florence, Lyons and the individual acts of union are now in a precarious state with respect to the Catholic-Orthodox dialogue.

The really “nice” thing about the Catholic “development of doctrine” is that things from the past can be recast, reinterpreted as events that can always have greater contemporary understanding brought to bear on them. Traditional RC’s do reject this when it comes to items in Vatican II et alia they don’t like. But in doing so, they also reject a significant character of the Western theological tradition which, if I may be so bold, is strong in its ability to be flexible.

As Fr. John Meyendorff once quoted an Orthodox teacher, “Do not argue with the Latins over the Petrine Primacy - such a primacy is good for the Church. Only ask him if the pope confesses the faith of Peter (i.e. the Symbol of the Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed) and, if so, then let him enjoy the privileges of Peter.”

Enough from me for one day.

Dominus Tecum!

Alex
 
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