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Major_Tom
Guest
I’m recalling some of the OT killing that occurred toward the Canaanites. Joshua, Chapter 10, one example. God extended the day so that Joshua could more efficiently carry out the killing. Surely there were children present…? Not saying that this is a direct parallel, but God tolerated all kinds of killing in the OT, didn’t he? And encourage it? We can assume that there were children in Sodom and Gomorrah, can’t we?Indeed–the fact that something is “in the Bible” ought not be mistaken for “this means that God commanded it.”
Cain slew Abel. This is “in the Bible”. But no moral person would ever say: “This means that God commands that brothers kill each other!”.
The fact that there is infanticide in the Bible does not mean that God sees this as good. In fact, the Bible is quite clear that infanticide is an abomination. It is “evil in” the eyes of God.
“‘The people of Judah** have done evil in my eyes,** declares the Lord. They have set up their detestable idols in the house that bears my Name and have defiled it. 31 They have built the high places of Topheth in the Valley of Ben Hinnom to burn their sons and daughters in the fire—something I did not command, nor did it enter my mind. 32 So beware, the days are coming, declares the Lord, when people will no longer call it Topheth or the Valley of Ben Hinnom, but the Valley of Slaughter, for they will bury the dead in Topheth until there is no more room. 33 Then the carcasses of this people will become food for the birds and the wild animals, and there will be no one to frighten them away. 34 I will bring an end to the sounds of joy and gladness and to the voices of bride and bridegroom in the towns of Judah and the streets of Jerusalem, for the land will become desolate.–Jeremiah 7