Originally Posted by
PLP
You have slipped in a subtle equivocation. You’ve assumed that matter “came to be” in an already existing time.
Wrong. I made no such assumption nor did I even tangentially include time.
So, I’ll give my definition of time:
The measure of change.
That is, if there is no change, then time has no existence since there is
- Nothing for it to either measure or act on.
- If no matter, time is a meaningless proposal.
But an already existing time is not “absolutely nothing”; time is something.
Good. You see that far. And of course that is EXACTLY what I said. To wit:
Nothing can come from absolutely nothing.
I will now add for your incomplete acceptance of “absolutely nothing”:
This includes TIME. For Time is a dependency or contingent phenomenon…no matter, no time.
Time is something only in relation to change. Matter is its requirement. Just as Energy is dependent on matter [E=Matter x C x C]
All phenomena is dependent on matter. Unless their is an immaterial substance. But that puts us into [EOG] = not available to a true atheist.
Either matter existed eternally, or matter came to be from something else; there’s no logical requirement that the something else is intelligent or conscious.
Did you get that folks?
“Matter eternally existed” (admission of EOM) “OR
matter came to be from something else.”
But we all know that
any material IS matter.
Code:
What PLP is saying to us is:
"Matter eternally existed OR it came from… "…yep, MATTER! (aka “something”)
UNLESS, that something is IMMATERIAL. There is no other “something”. It’s matter or non-matter aka immaterial.
Nor need one choose. One can choose agnosticism. One can choose apathy (not caring).
I already covered that clearly in my previous post. I used the very word “agnostic”.
However, in your case it is not possible because the very name of you own thread is: “Ask the Atheist”
One can (as I do) assert that your dichotomy is incoherent,
Sure you can, and since that is no argument I or anyone else can with equal force and validity return with “is coherent”.
Such “comebacks” as that produce no more persuasive value than putting 2 !'s at the end of a sentence!!
Your declaration would only indicate that you might need a timeout to think.
and one can deny (as I do) that even granting sufficient assumptions to make your dichotomy coherent, it is not exhaustive.
Good. You may exhaust it any time you like. But until you do, it stands “exhaustive”.
If a statement and its inverse are identical, the statement lacks meaning. If atheism is just as much “faith” as theism, then the positions are identical and meaningless; we should turn our attention to more meaningful subjects.
Nice try. “the positions are identical” ?
I clearly stated that the difference is WHAT they have FAITH IN.
The similarity ends with FAITH. Both have it. The really HUGE NON-IDENTICAL position is:
Faith in [EOM] (atheist)
Faith in [EOG] (theist)
According to you the Catholic Faith would have to be “identical” to hinduism because, well, they both rely on Faith.
No. The identical part is, as I showed above, is that atheism and theism are both RELIGIONS that rely on Faith.
End of “identical”.
You’re free to choose any religion you please, without regard to what I or anyone else believes to be rational or irrational.
Freedom to choose anything
does in no way create “right” to choose it.
I am free to choose to run over my neighbor’s dog.
I am free to choose to run stop signs.
Can you explain my right to do either?