Asking Mormon/Restorationist interpretation of some Scripture passages

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The following concern more passages that seem to contradict the idea in the JST version that Christianity was preached and existed before Christ:
Your verses do support that Christ’s message was not shared before Christ came.
Matthew 13:34-35
“All these things Jesus spoke in parables to the multitudes: and without parables he did not speak to them. [35] That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophet, saying: I will open my mouth in parables,** I will utter things hidden from the foundation of the world**.”
Jesus only taught his powerful message in parables because it was required to fulfill the prophecy “I will open my mouth in parables, I will utter things hidden from the foundation of the world”
1 Corinthians 2:4-10
“And my speech and my preaching was not in the persuasive words of human wisdom, but in shewing of the Spirit and power; [5] That your faith might not stand on the wisdom of men, but on the power of God.
[6] Howbeit we speak wisdom among the perfect: yet not the wisdom of this world, neither of the princes of this world that come to nought; [7] But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, a wisdom which is hidden, which God ordained before the world, unto our glory: [8] Which none of the princes of this world knew; for if they had known it, they would never have crucified the Lord of glory. [9] But, as it is written: That eye hath not seen, nor ear heard, neither hath it entered into the heart of man, what things God hath prepared for them that love him. [10] But** to us **God hath revealed them, by this Spirit. For the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things of God.”
His preaching was powerful because of the Spirit, not because of oratory skills
The wisdom of God is hidden or a mystery for if the princes of the world knew the truth, they world never have crucified Christ.
It is written that no human can comprehend what God has prepare for them, those that love God. But God has revealed it to us through the Spirit
Ephesians 3:8-12
“To me, the least of all the saints, is given this grace, to preach among the Gentiles, the unsearchable riches of Christ, [9] And to enlighten all men, that they may see what is the dispensation of the **mystery which hath been hidden from eternity **in God, who created all things: [10] That the manifold wisdom of God may be **made known to the principalities and powers in heavenly places through the church, ***
[11] According to the eternal purpose, which he made, in Christ Jesus our Lord: [12] In whom we have boldness and access with confidence by the faith of him.”
Lowly me has been given the ability to preach the rewards of Christ, and help men see what God has kept hidden through eternity. The wisdom of God will be shared through the church.
A strong faith in Christ will bestow us with confidence
Colossians 1:25-27
“Whereof I am made a minister according to the dispensation of God, which is given me towards you, that I may fulfill the word of God:
[26]** The mystery which hath been hidden from ages and generations, but now** is manifested to his saints, 27] To whom God would make known the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ, in you the hope of glory.”
I have been made a preacher of God so that I can fulfill the word of God
I teach the mystery which was hidden but now visible to believers
God revealed his Glory through Christ, so that you may hope of glory (to attain)
*This one is particularly interesting, as it shows that so great is the truth that the Church is Divinely Instituted, that the Holy Spirit is indeed its Spirit and Christ the Head, that the Church actually teaches the angels. Not the other way around, in the case of the various “angel messages” purporting to give new revelation to the likes of Mohammed and J. Smith.
I think you are reaching to read Angel instead of saints (devout believers) which then makes your JS angle erroneous.
 
But please, how about the OP? How come no one wants to comment on the actual Scripture passages? I’m just asking, first, how you interpret them in light of your beliefs. We can discuss those interpretations, or not, afterwards. But I have yet to hear any interpretations that view them in a light that does not contradict the idea of prophets adding things after Jesus, some interpretation of how they might mean that things did not change when Jesus came, after all, but in fact God still speaks to us by prophets in OT manner, and even that the Christian Gospel was known as such before Christ (as claimed in the JST).

Anyone?
You have my readings of all the verses, and I think one must have :highprayer: sniffed too much incense :highprayer: to extrapolate any message about limiting future revelation. 😃
Naturally all Jesus revelation has been fulfilled, so the Jesus subject is closed to future revelation
 
one must have sniffed too much incense
Really? Church incense has a calming effect? I can understand why burning sage has a calming effect (smells a bit like MJ). I might just try some church incense at home. Thank you for the suggestion. You know, the olfactory sensors are so close to the brain, even part of the brain, that their emotional associations are very strong. There is still some Catholicity within you. 😉
 
I think he is just “incensed” that the church he follows now is not from God
 
STM and LJ
I truely enjoy your humor:thumbsup:🙂

But notice no disagreement with my conclusions, that these verses do not indicate in any clear fashion that revelation and prophecy stopped.
 
STM and LJ
I truely enjoy your humor:thumbsup:🙂

But notice no disagreement with my conclusions, that these verses do not indicate in any clear fashion that revelation and prophecy stopped.
you had conclusions?

Wow…musta missed them.
 
As I pointed out, to interpret these verses,ANY of these verses, in the way you have is to deny that the men who actually wrote them had any authority to speak for God, since according to your interpretation of them, they were all specifically denying that THEY could tell us anything ‘true…’ After all, after Jesus there was nothing; John was the last prophet…

Then who do these men think they were, that they could say what they did, teach what they did, BE who they were?

If your interpretation stands, they were nobody…just men who were making up stuff, with no more authority to write scripture than today’s shouter on the corner holding up a sign declaring the end of existance as we know it.

But…if they were recievers of revelation, as they claimed to be; if what they wrote is indeed scripture and authoritative, then what they wrote MUST mean something other than what you think it does.
Again, Dianaiad, you attempt to misdirect and avoid, rather than answer the question about how you’d interpret the passages. Your answer amounts to “the authors of Scripture can’t possibly have meant what you think they meant.” You never answer what YOU think they meant, which was the main question. I’m left wondering if you just dismiss the passages entirely as incomprehensible. Words mean something.
I mentioned that, by the way…perhaps not as comprehensively as you would prefer, but I did. They all are talking about Christ’s fullfilling His role as Messiah and Savior…of Him being the one who reveals TO prophets and apostles. It’s not that everything came to a screeching halt…it’s that we all now look to HIM.
So you’re saying that things operate just like in times before Christ, except that now it’s Jesus who is speaking through the prophets and apostles, as opposed to someone else in times past? You’re saying that Jesus isn’t finished, that there’s still more he needs to reveal about himself, more that is necessary for us to believe in order to be saved? That he was holding something back in his Incarnation, and wasn’t fully God, so we couldn’t fully encounter God through him and in him?

I want to understand better what you’re saying before I respond about how it relates to Scriptures.
THAT is the circularity of your argument; that men who claim authority from God…because they were called of Him and recieve revelation that they pass on to us, claim that all such revelation ceased with the advent of Christ.
However, if revelation ceased at that time, then nobody (obviously) recieved any and could not honestly claim to have done so…so those who did were lying.
If it did NOT cease, then the men claiming to have recieved it were lying when they claim that it had ceased.
Either way there is a very big problem…and a false dichotomy that you have set up. Another option is…you are interpreting what they said incorrectly. They are all talking about the gospel, Christ’s role as Savior and Messiah, and that HE would be the Guide from then on.
:sigh: It’s evident that we’re going to go round and round in circles again. Do you listen at all? Do you have any comprehension whatsoever that words have meaning in more than one sense? That “revelation” has many senses of meaning?

I said this before, and you are proving the truth of it:
“You need to be more attentive or honest to what I’ve said, and the sense in which I’m meaning “revelation,” so we don’t get back into that problem where Mormons use all senses of revelation at once and confuse every discussion of it, because as soon as a Catholic narrows the sense down, the Mormon switches senses…
So, taking what I said in context and not confusing the various potential meanings of “revelation”…”

We’ve been round and round with this before, on other threads. When Catholics speak of “revelation,” we have several different very distinct, well-thought-out and established, very specific “senses” in which we mean it. When we speak of an end to “public revelation,” we are talking about those truths necessary for salvation, and a sufficiency in Christ by which we mean that Christ revealed everything about God in Himself, that there is no more to reveal.

Again, “To put it simply (as I have several times already), Christ revealed all. Paul is repeating and explaining what Christ revealed. He’s saying that there is no more need for prophets, because Christ came and God spoke to us through him. Once, as Jude clarifies.”

You want to confuse the senses, because any time we talk about one form of revelation, you change the sense in which you refer to revelation, apparently not realizing that the word has multifaceted meaning (or being intentionally deceptive if you do).

So yes, of course, Catholics believe that the Holy Spirit continues to guide and inspire and help us to understand those truths already and finally revealed by Christ.

My interpretations of the passages thus are not self-contradictory. Instead, they refer to the fact that things change after Christ. Jesus revealed many things which were hidden, and was God’s true Word, spoken once and for all. No longer were prophets needed in the sense of prophets of times past, for Jesus completed that mode of revelation. The Scripture passages I posted are apparently indicative of a major change.

Now the Spirit would guide people to understand what had already been revealed. The form of revelation, now, to Paul and others is that of understanding and guidance in how they are supposed to live out their calling. It is not new information that Christ didn’t share with them.

Do you see the difference?

ParkerD, Todd, thanks for your responses. I’ll get to them when I have time.
 
Todd:
Jude 1:3-5
I get the gist of the passage, but what do you think about the highlighted sections? That the faith was “once” delivered to “all” the saints? Surely we need to do much to understand the faith, to understand what Christ believed, and we need the Spirit’s guidance for that (into all truth and remembrance of all things…). But how can it be said that there was more needed beyond just understanding what was “once delivered to all”? How can “once” and “all” be interpreted to mean “twice more” in the LDS case to two more groups (tribes in America and then to J. Smith)? (Also see Luke 24:47 quoted earlier, where it says the gospel shall be preached “unto all nations, beginning at Jerusalem;” there is this one beginning from which is to stem the preaching to all nations, not just to some of the nations, with another beginning to cover the rest in the Americas and in the 1830s).

Hebrews 1:1-2
Again, what of the sections I bolded? If the meaning is as simple as you say, what can “in times past…LAST OF ALL…hath spoken” mean but that there was some sort of finality to it, some change, some fulfillment, some completeness reached by God’s own Son coming?

Luke 24:44-49 and Matthew 5:17-18
Where I have bolded “fulfill,” I suggest that the passages include in their meaning a sense of “complete.” Do you not think it is so, that Jesus “completes” what came before? That revelation about God and how we could be saved was leading up to him, to be completed in him?

ParkerD:
Christ certainly did teach in parables and used them in such a way that those who had the “wisdom of the world” didn’t understand His hidden meanings. There are many parables where this still happens. I have tried over and over to use some of the parables to help someone “get it” about exaltation (entering into the joy of thy Lord, and being made "ruler over many things), but the wisdom of the world will have none of it. It is still hidden, for them. The glory that Christ offered and taught about (in parables), is still lessened to something more acceptable to human understanding.
So you’re saying that things were always hidden in the same way, and still are? That there’s really no change in the way things are, that Jesus didn’t really change much?

One of the reasons I pointed these particular passages out is that they seem to make it clear that Jesus DID reveal many things for the first time during his ministry. This would seem to preclude the idea of pre-Christian Christianity in the JST, and I wanted to know how you all interpret these, how you reconcile them with a belief in that.

Matthew 13:34-35 I will utter things hidden from the foundation of the world.1 Corinthians 2:4-10 in a mystery, a wisdom which is hidden, which God ordained before the world, unto our glory: [8] Which none of the princes of this world knew; for if they had known it, they would never have crucified the Lord of glory. But to us God hath revealed them, by this Spirit.
Ephesians 3:8-12 mystery which hath been hidden from eternity in God, who created all things: [10] That the manifold wisdom of God may be made known to the principalities and powers in heavenly places through the church, *
Colossians 1:25-27 The mystery which hath been hidden from ages and generations, but now is manifested to his saints,


i.e., things that have not been revealed before.
Moses and Abraham had visions about the eternities and about the works of God in the universe, that were kept hidden from the world, but indeed Christ and John gave more knowledge to the world (still in a hidden way) than Moses and Abraham had done, about the glories available in eternity through the grace offered by Christ. That was in accordance with God’s timing for such things to be revealed to others than a very select few, and yet still be taught in a delicate, reverent, hallowed, and hidden way such that the “wisdom of men” still misses the teaching.
Did the pre-Christian patriarchs know and believe in Christ and his Gospel as given during Christ’s ministry, and preached through the Apostles?
You seem to make exception for “a very select few.” As if the NT passages that seem rather absolute were really making exception for, well, a few special people who got to know beforehand, who got to experience before Christ came and died and rose for us, that very same saving power before he ever did those things.
 
Todd (your other post  ):
Your verses do support that Christ’s message was not shared before Christ came.
Glad we agree  How do you make sense of the JST’s additions that apparently say otherwise?
Jesus only taught his powerful message in parables because it was required to fulfill the prophecy “I will open my mouth in parables, I will utter things hidden from the foundation of the world”
Only because he was fulfilling prophecy? I’m not really talking about how he spoke in parables. I’m noticing that the Scriptures say these things were hidden up until Christ.
It is written that no human can comprehend what God has prepare for them, those that love God. But God has revealed it to us through the Spirit
The passage you refer to I don’t think gives an exemption, saying we can know it; I think it says that we still can’t even imagine what He has prepared for us. What I was pointing out in **1 Corinthians 2:4-10 **was that the language suggests that it is uniquely revealed to Christians after Christ came.
Lowly me has been given the ability to preach the rewards of Christ, and help men see what God has kept hidden through eternity. The wisdom of God will be shared through the church.
A strong faith in Christ will bestow us with confidence
Ephesians 3:8-12 the mystery which hath been hidden from eternity
Yes, “the wisdom of God will be shared through the Church,” as you say, and it was not available before; it is now uniquely revealed by and through Christ, from that point in history onward.
I have been made a preacher of God so that I can fulfill the word of God
I teach the mystery which was hidden but now visible to believers
God revealed his Glory through Christ, so that you may hope of glory (to attain
Agreed; it is now made visible.
I think you are reaching to read Angel instead of saints (devout believers) which then makes your JS angle erroneous.
Oh? Ephesians 3:10 That the manifold wisdom of God may be made known to the principalities and powers in heavenly places through the church
Also see Ephesians 6:12: For our wrestling is not against flesh and blood; but against principalities and powers, against the rulers of the world of this darkness, against the spirits of wickedness in the high places.

“Principalities and powers” refers to angelic beings. God’s wisdom will be made known to them through the Church, which is human. The Church will teach angels. Surely the angels will still serve God in many capacities, but the Church is privileged with wisdom that the angels don’t even have, because Jesus became man and made the Church his Body.
to extrapolate any message about limiting future revelation.
Naturally all Jesus revelation has been fulfilled, so the Jesus subject is closed to future revelation
We need to be clear in what senses we mean “revelation.” Do you have a problem with the formula I have repeatedly used: “To put it simply (as I have several times already), Christ revealed all. Paul is repeating and explaining what Christ revealed. He’s saying that there is no more need for prophets, because Christ came and God spoke to us through him. Once, as Jude clarifies.”
 
Hi Arandur
I’ll skip the quotes to keep it short

**Jude **
I read it as “once” (AFTER) the message was delivered, not as a preclusion to it being repeated twice or a hundred times
I’m not going to mix in other verses as I fear the Bible can be used to prove anything with the right excerpts

**Hebrews. **
Well Obama is the last president to be elected, and he is also the most recent president to be elected (same-same)
But in no way does ‘last’ indicate the FINAL president. So the most recent speaker for God on earth was his Son, but that does not mean he was the FINAL speaker

Luke & Matthew.
I may be missing something because I only see the obvious – Jesus has come and gone, so naturally he has completed the prophecies related to his coming. None of this prevents prophecies on other subjects besides his historical life/teachings

JST additions – I don’t see their conflict but am still learning and reading

**Parables **strange but true – the verse states he spoke in parables to fulfill the prior prophecy on how he would teach . And his actual Gospel was kept hidden until he came to teach it. (no leaked copies over the spiritual internet)😃

**Corinthians **I should have said: It is written – No man has (previously) seen, heard or felt what God has prepared for his faithful (that love him). But it is now revealed to us by the Spirit.

I see it being revealed and then shared through the Church, but nothing that strongly implies “uniquely” revealed or exclusively shared through the Church

Colossians
I still stand by my read: I teach the mystery which was hidden but now visible to true believers (saints).

I think we disagree on “revelation”
Christ may have revealed ALL his message, but that doesn’t preclude revelation in other areas or to continue explaining it. Both Paul and JS are explaining or adding depth to what Christ revealed (news footage lost)
 
Again, Dianaiad, you attempt to misdirect and avoid, rather than answer the question about how you’d interpret the passages. Your answer amounts to “the authors of Scripture can’t possibly have meant what you think they meant.” You never answer what YOU think they meant, which was the main question. I’m left wondering if you just dismiss the passages entirely as incomprehensible. Words mean something.
Yes, they do. Your OP specifically related that these scriptures MEANT that any restorationist idea was false. It is to that, then, that I addressed my first response.
So you’re saying that things operate just like in times before Christ, except that now it’s Jesus who is speaking through the prophets and apostles, as opposed to someone else in times past?
Not exactly, since, as you may already know, we do believe that Jesus is the Jehovah of the OT. However, in that He completed His Mission as Messiah and Savior with His atoning sacrifice and is the Person through Whom all must go to be saved, yes.
You’re saying that Jesus isn’t finished, that there’s still more he needs to reveal about himself, more that is necessary for us to believe in order to be saved?
That He had more to say is fairly obvious, given the fact that He did indeed say more. You might have a point that He had nothing more to say IF the NT consisted only of the gospels and ended with His death, resurrection and assumption into heaven. However, it doesn’t end there. We also have the Acts of the Apostles, various letters, and a certain account of a revelation given to Paul on this pesky road to Damascus that tell us that Jesus did indeed have more to say.

Unless, of course, you think that these men were lying about this stuff? Of course, if that’s so you have an entirely different problem…like having to throw out everything Paul or Peter wrote…and oh, Jude…
That he was holding something back in his Incarnation, and wasn’t fully God, so we couldn’t fully encounter God through him and in him?

I want to understand better what you’re saying before I respond about how it relates to Scriptures.
False dichotomy. Realizing that He had more to say (because he DID say more) and figuring that if He wants to, He can choose to say more NOW is by no means denying His Godhood. It’s simply acknowledging that He did what He actually did…which was to reveal more stuff to His apostles after His death and resurrection. By doing so, He very clearly disproves your contention that He did NOT do so.
:sigh: It’s evident that we’re going to go round and round in circles again.
Not my circle, sir!
Do you listen at all? Do you have any comprehension whatsoever that words have meaning in more than one sense? That “revelation” has many senses of meaning?
That’s…convenient. What is your definition of ‘revelation,’ that, say…Paul’s experience on the Road to Damascus does NOT look, sound and feel precisely like, well…revelation?

Revelation from God is…direct communication from God to man. PUBLIC revelation, which is what is at issue here (private revelation never left…), is when God communicates directly with man with instructions and edification for all. THAT, sir, is what makes someone a prophet; not that one is a prophet and therefore he may recieve public revelation, but…receiving public revelation is what MAKES one a prophet.

to be cont…
 
cont…
I said this before, and you are proving the truth of it:
“You need to be more attentive or honest to what I’ve said, and the sense in which I’m meaning “revelation,” so we don’t get back into that problem where Mormons use all senses of revelation at once and confuse every discussion of it, because as soon as a Catholic narrows the sense down, the Mormon switches senses…
So, taking what I said in context and not confusing the various potential meanings of “revelation”…”

We’ve been round and round with this before, on other threads. When Catholics speak of “revelation,” we have several different very distinct, well-thought-out and established, very specific “senses” in which we mean it. When we speak of an end to “public revelation,” we are talking about those truths necessary for salvation, and a sufficiency in Christ by which we mean that Christ revealed everything about God in Himself, that there is no more to reveal.
I don’t know whether that argument is best described as equivocation, “True Scott’ or begging the question…perhaps a bit of all those. If by “Public revelation” you mean only those words that Christ spoke while living a mortal life and during that period between His death and resurrection,” then of course there has been no more.

But you are equivocating when you use THAT definition to encompass what WE consider to be public revelation, which isn’t always ‘salvific’ in nature. Public revelation is that revelation from God to man, given for the guidance of all, as opposed to private revelation, which is given from God to man for the guidance of that one person.

You are claiming that public revelation (in our sense of the word) ceased because it ceased in YOUR sense of the word—and that simply isn’t going to fly.

Not to mention that anything that Jesus said after HIs death and before His ascension is certainly revelation in the very most classic sense, even according to YOUR definition!
Again, "To put it simply (as I have several times already), Christ revealed all.
He still does.
Paul is repeating and explaining what Christ revealed. He’s saying that there is no more need for prophets, because Christ came and God spoke to us through him. Once, as Jude clarifies."
But if that’s what Paul MEANT, then Paul is lying, because Paul was a prophet in the very most classic sense of the word. He would then be denying his own place and words, and thus invalidating his own claim.

As I said, circular.
You want to confuse the senses, because any time we talk about one form of revelation, you change the sense in which you refer to revelation, apparently not realizing that the word has multifaceted meaning (or being intentionally deceptive if you do).
I’m not the one with all the different definitions of what revelation is…and, I notice, not telling us at any one time which one you are using. Our definition of ‘revelation’ is singular, and simple, and encompasses all (hey, you said that.) You are the one who is claiming that because one of your definitions of revelation (and a very narrow one, at that) has ceased, that ALL have.
So yes, of course, Catholics believe that the Holy Spirit continues to guide and inspire and help us to understand those truths already and finally revealed by Christ.

My interpretations of the passages thus are not self-contradictory. Instead, they refer to the fact that things change after Christ. Jesus revealed many things which were hidden, and was God’s true Word, spoken once and for all. No longer were prophets needed in the sense of prophets of times past, for Jesus completed that mode of revelation. The Scripture passages I posted are apparently indicative of a major change.

Now the Spirit would guide people to understand what had already been revealed. The form of revelation, now, to Paul and others is that of understanding and guidance in how they are supposed to live out their calling. It is not new information that Christ didn’t share with them.

Do you see the difference?

ParkerD, Todd, thanks for your responses. I’ll get to them when I have time.
I see the equivocation, yes.
 
**Jude **
I read it as “once” (AFTER) the message was delivered, not as a preclusion to it being repeated twice or a hundred times
Interesting, but I don’t think that works. Just an admonition to contend for the faith once it was delivered? Not contend for truth before? More importantly, Jude writes in the context of other versions of the gospel, other heresies being spread. Second and third times delivery. Thus in context, I think must be read as “once” in the sense of “this Gospel is delivered once through Christ; you shall not hear other gospels from other mouths that contradict it and instead accept those, nor take any that seem like it.” In this manner it goes right along with the other letters that admonish the saints not to accept gospels preached by any other than the apostles’ original gospel, even if those gospels come by an angel, or even if an apostle comes and delivers a different gospel. Context supports that, whereas “once” could be left out of the passage entirely if it only meant what you take it to mean, without then changing the meaning of the passage.
**Hebrews. **
Well Obama is the last president to be elected, and he is also the most recent president to be elected (same-same)
But in no way does ‘last’ indicate the FINAL president. So the most recent speaker for God on earth was his Son, but that does not mean he was the FINAL speaker
A couple problems I see with that. Last “OF ALL.” That does imply a final prophet, a last Word. Also, if Paul is supposed to be a prophet just like all the prophets of old (from whom we have the Law and the Prophets, clearly frequently referred to as a past message, and never those phrases used to refer to anything after Christ), then the “last” prophet in the sense of “most recent” would necessarily be Paul himself. Thus I don’t think that reading works.
Luke & Matthew.
I may be missing something because I only see the obvious – Jesus has come and gone, so naturally he has completed the prophecies related to his coming. None of this prevents prophecies on other subjects besides his historical life/teachings
Seems to me those passages imply that all that came before was merely a lead up to Christ, and he fulfills it all. Thus the pattern of law and prophets, as Paul also speaks of later when he derides the law as something of the past, is indeed past, and such patterns will not continue.
JST additions – I don’t see their conflict but am still learning and reading
Take a look at them, then, and see if you think they say that Christ’s Gospel, and the Spirit and Salvation that come after his time on earth actually were all available, supposedly, earlier in time. Thus there was really no need for Christ to come when he did, and his coming in that point in time didn’t really change things in terms of the timeline.
**Parables **strange but true – the verse states he spoke in parables to fulfill the prior prophecy on how he would teach . And his actual Gospel was kept hidden until he came to teach it. (no leaked copies over the spiritual internet)😃
Yes. Which would seem to invalidate the above 🙂
**Corinthians **…
I see it being revealed and then shared through the Church, but nothing that strongly implies “uniquely” revealed or exclusively shared through the Church
“To us?”
Colossians
I still stand by my read: I teach the mystery which was hidden but now visible to true believers (saints).
…but was not visible before, is my point. Thus no pre-Christian Christianity.
I think we disagree on “revelation”
Christ may have revealed ALL his message, but that doesn’t preclude revelation in other areas or to continue explaining it. Both Paul and JS are explaining or adding depth to what Christ revealed (news footage lost)
What “revelation in other areas?”
We need to be definite and narrow about to what we are referring. I am saying that Jesus, who is God, God’s Word Incarnate, was the ultimate revelation of God Himself to man, because he became man and dwelt among us. That’s what John 1 refers to so beautifully. Thus God has shown Himself to us definitively. Further, there is no more required for our salvation; we are not waiting on something, like the Jews were for so many generations. There is no other message that we need to be given, no other action that needs to be taken by God, nothing more for us to believe about God and know about Love than what Christ gave us when He came, before we can be saved. God is not holding out on us.

Sure, as I’ve said many times, the Spirit helps us understand what has been revealed better, helps guide us in our daily lives. That sort of “revelation” I wouldn’t really even call revelation. It’s “guidance.” 🙂

Remember, Jesus gave us the Spirit to “lead you into all truth…to guide you into remembrance of all things I have told you.”

Peace.
 
Your OP specifically related that these scriptures MEANT that any restorationist idea was false.
I gave a bit of my interpretation so that it was clear why I was interested in the interpretation of restorationists. Mormons are the most common around here, so I did expect your group more than others.
That He had more to say is fairly obvious, given the fact that He did indeed say more. You might have a point that He had nothing more to say IF the NT consisted only of the gospels and ended with His death, resurrection and assumption into heaven. However, it doesn’t end there. We also have the Acts of the Apostles, various letters, and a certain account of a revelation given to Paul on this pesky road to Damascus that tell us that Jesus did indeed have more to say…
Realizing that He had more to say (because he DID say more) and figuring that if He wants to, He can choose to say more NOW is by no means denying His Godhood. It’s simply acknowledging that He did what He actually did…which was to reveal more stuff to His apostles after His death and resurrection. By doing so, He very clearly disproves your contention that He did NOT do so.
Actually, the NT books were all written about what Christ said and instructed. John 14:24 “But the Paraclete, the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things, and bring all things to your mind, whatsoever I shall **have said **to you.”

So all has been revealed, and the Spirit is merely reminding. Those are different forms of revelation.

Again, Christ, in his Incarnation, life, and saving act, revealed everything about God, Love, and what we need to believe for salvation. That’s one distinct type and form of revelation.

The Spirit helps us to understand what was revealed and gives us guidance in our daily lives. Those are distinctly different functions. Do not confuse these, for you only muddy the waters and make it impossible to discuss “revelation.” We must be clear in what senses of the word we are referring to.
Not my circle, sir!
Yes, it is. I specifically separate the types of revelation. You try to use all senses at once, or switch from one to another as if there were no difference, forcing us around in circles.
That’s…convenient. What is your definition of ‘revelation,’ that, say…Paul’s experience on the Road to Damascus does NOT look, sound and feel precisely like, well…revelation?
Jesus appeared to Paul, yes. That’s an apparition, a type of revelation. Jesus convicted Paul and gave him a mission. Yes, that’s one sense of revelation, and part of the mission of prophets (the primary sense in which “prophets” are referred to among the saints in the NT–people who convict the people of God, reminding them and calling them to account).
Another form of revelation and distinct type of prophecy is foretelling some future event, something important to faith.
Yet another form of revelation and distinct aspect of OT prophets is giving the people new information about God, something that moves them along the process towards salvation, which salvation otherwise they can’t gain. It’s this form that Christ fulfilled and completed.
Revelation from God is…direct communication from God to man. PUBLIC revelation, which is what is at issue here (private revelation never left…), is when God communicates directly with man with instructions and edification for all. THAT, sir, is what makes someone a prophet; not that one is a prophet and therefore he may recieve public revelation, but…receiving public revelation is what MAKES one a prophet.
That’s far too broad a definition. It does not get into the various roles of a prophet (for not all prophets fill all roles), nor into the various types of revelation.
 
But you are equivocating when you use THAT definition to encompass what WE consider to be public revelation, which isn’t always ‘salvific’ in nature. Public revelation is that revelation from God to man, given for the guidance of all, as opposed to private revelation, which is given from God to man for the guidance of that one person.
Nope. Here are some types of revelation:
Concerning the nature of God–completed in Christ
Concerning the nature of Love–a subset of the above, as God IS Love, and completed in Christ
Necessary for Salvation (essential doctrines)–completed in Christ, since otherwise He has not yet saved us
Helping us to understand about any of the above (leading us into truth, calling things to mind)–still being done by the Spirit
Providing guidance into how the Church should live out the faith–still being done by the Spirit
Granting insight into future events–still being done by the Spirit, but not required to be believed in order to be saved

Can you think of any other types of public revelation?
You are claiming that public revelation (in our sense of the word) ceased because it ceased in YOUR sense of the word—and that simply isn’t going to fly.
Oh? Why not? Do you disagree that there are different types, forms, or topics of revelation?
Not to mention that anything that Jesus said after HIs death and before His ascension is certainly revelation in the very most classic sense, even according to YOUR definition!
? Until you’re more clear about about definitions, I’m not sure what you’re referring to.
He still does.
He doesn’t contradict anything given before; he hasn’t held back anything about himself, so there’s nothing new about the nature of God; he hasn’t held anything back about how to love, or about what we need to know to be saved…so what he still gives is understanding and guidance.
But if that’s what Paul MEANT, then Paul is lying, because Paul was a prophet in the very most classic sense of the word. He would then be denying his own place and words, and thus invalidating his own claim.
No, Paul repeated what Christ already revealed while on earth. He did not give anything extra that Jesus didn’t. Did he actually ever refer to himself as a prophet? Or as holding an “office” of Prophet?
This still begs the question of what you think the passage means. You’re only saying that it can’t mean what I think it means.
I’m not the one with all the different definitions of what revelation is…and, I notice, not telling us at any one time which one you are using. Our definition of ‘revelation’ is singular, and simple, and encompasses all (hey, you said that.) You are the one who is claiming that because one of your definitions of revelation (and a very narrow one, at that) has ceased, that ALL have.
I have NEVER said that ALL forms of revelation have ended. This is the type of dishonesty that really bothers me. I am being precise, because it is important.

As for being clear about the ones I’ve been using, I’ve been trying to. Sorry you’ve missed it. Perhaps my most recent posts will illuminate.
 
I gave a bit of my interpretation so that it was clear why I was interested in the interpretation of restorationists. Mormons are the most common around here, so I did expect your group more than others.
We aren’t the only restorationists, y’know. m’just sayin…my ypoint still stands, since you did specifically aim that post at Restorationists…and the only way any interpretation of those verses would be problematic to Restorationists (of any type) is to claim that they specifically deny any sort of revelation after Christ’s life, death and resurrection. No other interpretation would “disprove” restorationism.
Actually, the NT books were all written about what Christ said and instructed. John 14:24 “But the Paraclete, the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things, and bring all things to your mind, whatsoever I shall **have said **to you.”

So all has been revealed, and the Spirit is merely reminding. Those are different forms of revelation.
but they are revelation. As to whether anything said was 'new…" I didn’t see Jesus worried about the length of a woman’s hair, or whether it was covered, did you–or any of the other things that the letters to the various churches mentioned? Paul wrote about quite a few things that Jesus Himself did not speak of Personally…at least, not as far as we have quoted in those red letters. Jesus did not speak of the qualifications of a Bishop or a Deacon—and if there was no further revelation, who DID knock Paul off his…donkey…on the way to Damascus? What was it that happened to Annanias and Saphira…and why?

You are, again, equivocating.
Again, Christ, in his Incarnation, life, and saving act, revealed everything about God, Love, and what we need to believe for salvation. That’s one distinct type and form of revelation.

The Spirit helps us to understand what was revealed and gives us guidance in our daily lives. Those are distinctly different functions. Do not confuse these, for you only muddy the waters and make it impossible to discuss “revelation.” We must be clear in what senses of the word we are referring to.
Yes, it is. I specifically separate the types of revelation. You try to use all senses at once, or switch from one to another as if there were no difference, forcing us around in circles.

No, that would be you. There ARE only two types of revelation; public and private. They are divided mainly by who the information is meant for; if it is for the use of the person who recieves it only (such as the confirmation by the Holy Ghost of Truth) then it is private. If this information is for the use and edification of people OTHER than the one to whom it is given, then it is public. It is you who are attempting to narrowly define a specific sort of revelation, apply it to these verses, and then claim that because it applies to THAT sort, then it applies to all public revelation…
Jesus appeared to Paul, yes. That’s an apparition, a type of revelation.
Thank you. Yes. that IS revelation, of precisely the sort we claim continued.
Jesus convicted Paul and gave him a mission. Yes, that’s one sense of revelation, and part of the mission of prophets (the primary sense in which “prophets” are referred to among the saints in the NT–people who convict the people of God, reminding them and calling them to account).
Another form of revelation and distinct type of prophecy is foretelling some future event, something important to faith.
Yet another form of revelation and distinct aspect of OT prophets is giving the people new information about God, something that moves them along the process towards salvation, which salvation otherwise they can’t gain. It’s this form that Christ fulfilled and completed.

That’s far too broad a definition. It does not get into the various roles of a prophet (for not all prophets fill all roles), nor into the various types of revelation.
No, it is not too broad, because you were attempting to make your extremely narrow definition of revelation (which MIGHT be covered by those verses…or not…that’s for a different thread) equate to the entire spectrum of revelation. Remember, we as Mormons do not claim that any revelation recieved by any of our prophets contradicts anything that Christ said; quite the opposite.

The thing is, Catholics claim that public revelation ceased after the death of the last apostle…we agree with that. The difference, of course, is that we believe it was restored again by God Himself, and there is nothing in the bible that prohibits that. 😉
 
Interesting, but I don’t think that works. …
We disagree on nuances that can’t be readily solved. Since these are english language nuances, the answer is probably in the original greek or hebrew.
 
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