At the time of Christ and O. T

[Jim_Baur]

When did dictionaries come into existence?

When did grammar books or grammatical distintions come into existence?

In other words, would Moses, the prophets have made noun, verb, adverb and so forth distinctions?

Would St. Paul or St. John been aware of the same kind of distinctions?

Would they have been aware of these kind of clarifications?

Thanks!

 

[Cachonga]

Not sure how valid this question really is. How well did you speak your native language before you ever learned the difference between a noun and a verb? How well do you think someone could speak their native language if they never learned what grammer was? I would suggest that that Moses, Paul, John, etc… were capable of using their language whether they could conjugate a verb, identify an adjective, or spot a preposition. Add to that the fact that the written word back then was all caps with no punctuation.

Of course, I suppose it’s possible that Moses had a copy of Webstein’s Dictionary, while Paul and John made use of Rogelius’ Thesaurus.

 

[Jim_Baur]

First, I want to thank you for your help.

Honestly, I hope that you forgive me for not stating my personal reasons in the original post.

I am more concerned about our worries with grammar.

I ponder whether we go too far with grammar in our exegesis. Do we turn our exegesis into isogesis?

I have seen Hebrew scholars correct the Biblical text. The text says that a Hebrew word means one thing and Hebrew scholars say that the Holy Bible is incorrect.

Honestly, it is way over my head, that is why I asked for help.

Again, I thank you for your ideas and help.

 

[Jim_Baur]

I misspelled a the word eigesis. I spelled it isogesis, sorry.