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howgreathouart
Guest
Hi! I have a question that I’ve been asking priests about for a while, and I keep being given unclear answers. I’m possibly about to sound really scrupulous, but I’m sincerely concerned about this.
I understand that deliberating seeking sexual arousal outside of marriage is sinful. I also understand that placing yourself in a situation in which sexual arousal is likely to occur is very likely a near occasion of sin. (Right?)
But my question is…what if the things you know, from past experience, are likely to cause sexual arousal are…not at all sexual in nature? What if they’re actually perfectly innocent and chaste? (I’m talking really innocent. Holding hands. Sitting close together. And no impure thoughts involved.) Would you then have an obligation to stop engaging in those actions because to do so would be to place yourself in a near occasion of sin? That just doesn’t seem very practical.
Further, since daydreaming about sexual situations is sinful, if we were to say that, in the above situation, it is a near occasion of sin to engage in those sorts of innocent behaviors, would it also be a near occasion of sin to daydream about them? Such that, not only could you not hold your SO, but you also couldn’t even THINK about doing so? And would the moral status of the daydreams change depending on whether the daydreams themselves resulted in sexual arousal? Or if they ever led to actually impure thoughts? (I’m sure we can agree that daydreaming isn’t a good use of time or anything, but I’m trying to figure out what would constitute a near occasion of mortal sin, not just poor time management.)
Basically, I’d just like to get a really clear definition of how exactly we can know if something is a near occasion of sin so that I don’t accidentally put myself in one or drive myself crazy for no reason. Thank you!
I understand that deliberating seeking sexual arousal outside of marriage is sinful. I also understand that placing yourself in a situation in which sexual arousal is likely to occur is very likely a near occasion of sin. (Right?)
But my question is…what if the things you know, from past experience, are likely to cause sexual arousal are…not at all sexual in nature? What if they’re actually perfectly innocent and chaste? (I’m talking really innocent. Holding hands. Sitting close together. And no impure thoughts involved.) Would you then have an obligation to stop engaging in those actions because to do so would be to place yourself in a near occasion of sin? That just doesn’t seem very practical.
Further, since daydreaming about sexual situations is sinful, if we were to say that, in the above situation, it is a near occasion of sin to engage in those sorts of innocent behaviors, would it also be a near occasion of sin to daydream about them? Such that, not only could you not hold your SO, but you also couldn’t even THINK about doing so? And would the moral status of the daydreams change depending on whether the daydreams themselves resulted in sexual arousal? Or if they ever led to actually impure thoughts? (I’m sure we can agree that daydreaming isn’t a good use of time or anything, but I’m trying to figure out what would constitute a near occasion of mortal sin, not just poor time management.)
Basically, I’d just like to get a really clear definition of how exactly we can know if something is a near occasion of sin so that I don’t accidentally put myself in one or drive myself crazy for no reason. Thank you!