At what point does the Holy Spirit begin 'guiding' sola scriptura Christians in interpreting scripture?

[RedFan]

So you say. But, clearly, we find it in the Bible.

The principle of sola scriptura is clearly found in the Bible? Where?

 

[Chris4]

The question from RedFan is taking long in coming. I seem to be hearing the rustling of pages of the Bible as someone searches for that non-existent reply, although it can guess where one will misguidedly open for reference. Sola Scriptura is un-Biblical.

 

[Cathoholic]

Ancient Hebrew tradition tells us Moses wrote the first five books of the Bible (Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy). The Pentateuch.

Jesus in John 5::46 seems to at least suggest the truth of this tradition.

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JOHN 5:46 46 If you believed Moses, you would believe me, for he wrote of me.

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FloridaAngler.

WHEN do you think the “principle” (or the implicit teaching) of sola Scriptura was FIRST implimented in the Bible?

People were being held accountable for their sins (like Cain and many others) yet Moses hadn’t even been conceived and born, much less wrote any Scripture for hundreds and perhaps thousands of years.

Yet God holds those people to account!

WHY would God do that (if there is no other authoritative revelation source of at least SOME morality–like in this case, the natural law)?

Just WHEN in Scripture, do you think this elusive PRINCIPLE of sola Scriptura was FIRST introduced?

To Adam? (Do you think Adam wrote parts of the Old Testament??) To Cain? To Lamech? To Noah?

When in time and to whom in Scripture? And WHERE in Scripture is this enigmatic or mysterious concept of sola Scriptura first given?