Philthy:
It would withstand my logic if you could demonstrate it’s truth - but you haven’t. I have only critiqued your logic in 2 areas:
- Your claim that omniscience excludes free will
- Your application of science to all areas of knowledge
I stand by those critiques. Your position(omniscience and free will are mutually exclusive) fails because of its inherent weakness as revealed through logic. It is imperative that knowledge be built on solid foundations.
I tell what’s imperitive to draw conclusions with a process of logic:
- We need premises.
- For the premises, we need definitions, we agree upon.
- We must agree that logic is applicable at all.
We do not have to agree on the premises, as we both try to show they are true or false, but for the other 2 issues we need agreement, which we don’t have. Obviously we define “omniscience” differently for a start. Secondly, I doubt we have the same definition of “knowledge”.
So, if we want to continue or restart that discussion, let’s start with defining “knowledge”.
But I haven’t seen you refute what I have presented, nor have I seen you admit that omniscience per se doesn’t exclude free will.
That is, because you do not read what I write. I said, an omniscient,
uninvolved (and that exclude a Creator) observer would allow free will. Furthermore, I presented that quantum physics suggests that an omnipresent observer would imply complete pre-determination. While writing this, I must add, that quantum physics also suggests, that an univolved observer is impossible. All this is not illogical nor flawed, you reject those arguments, because they are incompatible with or not applicable (iyo) to a
super-natural being like your God.
I know you do! However, can you show me your scientific proof for the contention that “Only that which can be verified scientifically should be considered true”? No, you can’t - it is a PHILOSOPHICAL proposition and is outside the realm of science. Hence, it is self-refuting!
That contention is a good definition to determine what “true”, or better “objectively true” really means. I agree, there is no proof for that
definition. That does not mean it is self-refuting, it means you mix apples and nuclear reactors.
Why must all reality have a “physical representation”?
Sound like a good definition for “reality” to me.
Even if you can make a “physcial representation” that is no guarantee that it is a PERFECT representation, and therefore any manipulation of that imperfect physical representation (whether mathmatical or theoretical) will also be inherently limited and flawed.
What has that to do with anything? I apporach this from the wrong side. There is a physical process, we call “free will”. Period.
Request for retype: If Free Will is not real, ie by the defintion made above does not have a physical representation like a electro-chemical reaction in our brains, it’s a concept to scope with unpredictability of physical events. You may call it an illusion.