Thus, we Catholics believe that the parts by God and the parts by man are distinguishable based on three sources outside of scripture and our own subjectivity. Those sources are (1) the natural law implanted in us by God, (2) the “Sacred Tradition” of the Church (which we believe ultimately goes back to the apostles and to inspiration by God), and (3) ongoing guidance of the Church by God. If you assume that (1) through (3) are real (as Catholics do), then it follows that we have a basis for cross-checking scripture against other outside sources from which we can understand God’s will.
Thanks for an actual response. I appreciate the effort to sustain conversation.
All three of these sources – which explicitly mention god – fall under the supernatural aid category, and I’ll explain again why supernatural aid isn’t at all convincing. Other groups equally claim supernatural aid in interpreting texts and use their supposed supernatural aid to reach entirely different conclusions (there are, for example, evangelicals whose “divine inspiration” leads them to conclude that all of the Bible is literally true, including the atrocious parts).
The very existence of this discrepancy calls the reliability of divine inspiration into serious question. You are asserting that it’s possible for a sincere believer to be
wrong about divine inspiration, and as such, there is no basis whatsoever for considering inspiration to be reliable.
On what grounds could you possibly claim that you’ve got the “right” divine inspiration and that others have got the “wrong” divine inspiration? If it’s possible for deeply sincere believers to be duped into thinking that they’ve got the “right” inspiration when they in fact don’t, how can you be so sure that you’ve got the “right” inspiration?
I know that you’re just going to say, “It’s faith,” but surely you understand why that defense is utterly unconvincing, as people who believe in different interpretations of scripture will also say the same exact thing, which leaves us right back in the same place.
Heck, let’s make the example even more extreme than a literalist interpretation: let’s say that some guy tomorrow has divine inspiration that leads him to conclude that the violent and atrocious parts of the text are the parts authored by god and that all of the peace and love stuff are the areas where human authors got it wrong.
On what basis could you possibly disagree with an interpretation like that? Remember, you can’t appeal to “faith” or to the supernatural because that’s
his basis too. And, while numbers of believers are irrelevant to the truth value of a proposition, let’s say, in order to head off an irrelevant objection, that this one guy’s beliefs spread and that over the next few centuries a billion people on the planet believe in this interpretation.
On what possible basis could you reject that interpretation in favor of yours?
These are very serious questions because once you open up the possibility that parts of the book are corrupted by humans, the question then becomes how exactly you draw the line. I assert that the line is usually drawn by the values of the person doing the interpretation, and that appeals to “divine inspiration” and “natural law” are a cover for a person’s own values being the basis for this discrimination.
As I said earlier, this being the case, The Bible is therefore utterly and completely irrelevant in terms of morality, as we can just skip the text and go directly to the values of the people interpreting it. We can then discuss values without supernatural assumptions.