W
warpspeedpetey
Guest
in the course of another conversation this was posted as to why an atheist would not agree with a theist if they both knew the same thing
here is my response
because thats not a possible scenario when applied to a significantly large sample size of humanity. though some individuals may be more or less educated, intelligent, or knowledgeable, when averaged across the total population we are essentially equal in these qualities
if theism, and atheism were of equal validity, than under the conditions above we should expect to see approximately a 50/50 split. where half the population is theist and half is non-theist
however the actual distribution seems to be 10:1 to 20:1 reflecting a rate of atheism of 5% to 10% of the total population. (though i think that number a little high)
so if the arguments as to individuality were true and both propositions were equally valid then we should see a 50/50 distribution.
but we dont
in order to explain that unequal distribution we have to assume the following positions
the proof being that if they were equally valid than there should be an even distribution among the population
as we dont see that, and the other possibilities are false on their face.
we can only conclude that atheism and theism, are not of equal validity
in fact by the numbers of adherents atheism is only 1/10 to 1/20 as valid as theism (a little tongue in cheek )
does someone have an argument that might refute these ideas?
that essentially seems to be a polite claim that atheists are more intelligent than their theist counterparts.Quote:
What if the person disagreeing actually has more knowlege, not the same? What if the person disagreeing understands something better, not worse than the individual claiming that other’s don’t understand?
here is my response
because thats not a possible scenario when applied to a significantly large sample size of humanity. though some individuals may be more or less educated, intelligent, or knowledgeable, when averaged across the total population we are essentially equal in these qualities
if theism, and atheism were of equal validity, than under the conditions above we should expect to see approximately a 50/50 split. where half the population is theist and half is non-theist
however the actual distribution seems to be 10:1 to 20:1 reflecting a rate of atheism of 5% to 10% of the total population. (though i think that number a little high)
so if the arguments as to individuality were true and both propositions were equally valid then we should see a 50/50 distribution.
but we dont
in order to explain that unequal distribution we have to assume the following positions
- theists are less intelligent than average, by a large enough amount to account for the rate of that position in society. (9.5 out of 10 would have to be less intelligent than the current average)
- atheists are less intelligent than average by a rate significant enough to account for that distribution (1 to 2 out of 20 would have to be less intelligent than the current average)
- the propositions of atheism vs. theism are not of equal validity.
the proof being that if they were equally valid than there should be an even distribution among the population
as we dont see that, and the other possibilities are false on their face.
we can only conclude that atheism and theism, are not of equal validity
in fact by the numbers of adherents atheism is only 1/10 to 1/20 as valid as theism (a little tongue in cheek )
does someone have an argument that might refute these ideas?